500 Quiz Questions with Answers

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500 Quiz Questions with Answers

04 Aug 2020
500 Quiz Questions with Answers
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Crowdwisdom360
1955

500 Quiz Questions with Answers

1.  Who is the english physicist responsible for the "Big Bang Theory"?

A) Albert Einstein     

B) Michael Skube

C) George Gamow     

D) Roger Penrose

Ans. C

2. Who is the guardian of fundamental Rights enumerated in Indian Constitution?

A) Supreme Court     

B) Parliament

C) Prime Minister      

D) President

Ans. A

3. The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the constitution of

A) France

B) Canada

C) United Kingdom   

D) Switzerland

Ans. B

4. Which of the following is a Trans- Himalayan river?

A) Ganga       

B) Yamuna

C) Indus         

D) Ravi

Ans. C

5. The state having largest area under waste land is

A) Rajasthan  

B) Gujarat

C) Madhya Pradesh   

D)  Jammu and Kashmir

Ans. A

6. The headquarters of International Atomic Energy Agency is located in

A) Geneva      

B) Vienna

C) Rome        

D) New York

Ans. B

7. The same side of the moon always faces the Earth because

(A)       Moon and the Earth have gravitational force

(B)       Moon cannot change its position

(C)       the period of rotation of the Moon on its axis and period of revolution around' the Earth is almost the same

(D)       the period of rotation of the Moon is not equal to the period of rotation of the Earth

Ans: (C)

8.         Which of the following planets is known as 'Morning Star'?

(a)        Mercury

(b)       Venus

(c)        Mars

(d)       Jupiter

Ans: (b)

9. Which planet of the solar system spins on its axis at the fastest rate?

(a)        Mercury

(b)       Earth

(c)        Jupiter

(d)       Saturn

Ans: (c)

10. Which planet is known as the 'Watery Planet' ?

(a)        Mercury

(b)       Earth

(c)        Mars

(d)       Jupiter

Ans: (b)

11. Which planet looks reddish in the night sky?

(a)        Mercury

(b)       Mars

(c)        Jupiter

(d)       Saturn

Ans: (b)

12. The correct sequence of planets in the descending order of their equatorial diameter is :

(a)        Mars, Mercury, Uranus, Earth

(b)       Earth, Mars, Mercury, Uranus

(c)        Mercury, Uranus, Mars, Earth

(d)       Uranus, Earth, Mars, Mercury

Ans: (d)

13. Which of the following is the largest of the inner planets?

(a)        Venus

(b)       Mercury

(c)        Mars

(d)       Earth

Ans: (d)

14. In 1610, Galileo Galilei discovered four moons of which planet?

(a)        Saturn

(b)       Jupiter

(c)        Neptune

(d)       None of these

Ans: (b)

15. In order of their distances from the Sun, which of the following planets lie between Mars and Uranus?

(a)        Earth and Jupiter

(b)       Jupiter and Saturn

(c)        Saturn and Earth

(d)       Saturn and Neptune

Ans: (b)

16. The planet Mercury is difficult to be observed most of the time because:

(a)        it gets hidden behind Venus

(b)       it goes too far away from the Earth

(c)        it being too close to the Sun, gets hidden by the glare of the Sun

(d)       it cannot be seen at night as at that time no sunlight falls on it.

Ans: (c)

17.       Comets revolve around:

(a)        sun

(b)       earth

(c)        venus

(d)       no single heavenly body

Ans: (a)

18.       Which two planets of the solar system have no satellites?

(a)        Mercury and Venus

(b)       Venus and Mars

(c)        Mercury and Mars

(d)       Venus and Neptune

Ans: (a)

19.       The planet having thirteen moons is :

(a)        Venus

(b)       Mars

(c)        Uranus

(d)       Neptune

Ans: (d)

20.       'The length of its day and the tilt of its axis are almost identical to those of the earth'. This is true of:

(a)        Uranus

(b)       Neptune

(c)        Saturn

(d)       Mars

Ans: (d)

21.       The hottest planet is :

(a)        Mercury

(b)       Venus

(c)        Jupiter

(d)       Saturn

Ans: (b)

22.       Which of the following is the brightest planet?

(a)        Mercury

(b)       Venus

(c)        Mars

(d)       Jupiter

Ans: (b)

23.       Which of the planets is nearest to the earth?

(a)        Jupiter

(b)       Venus

(c)        Mercury

(d)       Mars

Ans: (b)

24.       Which planet is known as the Earth's Twin?

(a)        Venus

(b)       Mars

(c)        Uranus

(d)       Neptune

Ans: (a)

 

25.       Which one of the following planets takes the same number of days for rotation and revolution?

(a)        Mars

(b)       Venus

(c)        Mercury

(d)       Jupiter

Ans: (b)

 

26.       On which of the following planets of the solar system does the sun rise in the west and set in the east?

(a)        Venus

(b)       Mars

(c)        Jupiter

(d)       Saturn

Ans: (a)

 

27.       Which of the following planets of the solar system has the longest day?

(a)        Mercury

(b)       Jupiter

(c)        Venus

(d)       Earth

Ans: (c)

 

 

28.       The exact time taken by the earth for single rotation on its own axis is:

(a)        24 hrs

(b)       24 hrs 35 sec

(c)        23 hrs 50 minutes 7.2 sec

(d)       23 hrs 56 minutes 4.09 sec

Ans: (d)

29.       The Cabinet Mission to India was headed by :

(a)        Stafford Cripps

(b)       A.V. Alexander

(c)        Lord Pethick Lawrence

(d)       Hugh Gaitskell

Ans: (c)

30.       The Constitution of India was adopted by the:

(a)        Governor General

(b)       British Parliament

(c)        Constituent Assembly

(d)       Parliament of India

Ans: (c)

31. The Constituent Assembly for undivided India first met on

(a)        6th December, 1946

(b)       9th December, 1946

(c)        20th February, 1947

(d)       3rd June, 1947

Ans: (b)

32.       When the Constituent Assembly for the Dominion of India reassembled on 31 st October, 1947, its reduced membership was:

(a)        299

(b)       311

(c)        319

(d)       331

Ans: (a)

33.Who among the following was the Constitutional adviser to the Constituent Assembly of India?

(a)        Dr. B.N. Rao

(b)       Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(c)        K.M. Munshi

(d)       M.C. Setalvad

Ans: (a)

34.       The Constitution of India was enacted by a Constituent Assembly set up :

(a)        under the Indian Independence Act, 1947

(b)       under the Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

(c)        through a resolution of the provisional government

(d)       by the Indian National Congress

Ans: (b)

35.       The Constituent Assembly which framed the Constitution for Independent India was set up in :

(a)        1945

(b)       1946

(c)        1947

(d)       1949

Ans: (b)

36.       Who presided over the inaugural meeting of the Constituent Assembly of India?

(a)        Sachidananda Sinha

(b)       B. R. Ambedkar

(c)        Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(d)       P. Upendra

Ans: (a)

37.       Who among the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?

(a)        Rajendra Prasad

(b)       Tej Bahadur Sapru

(c)        C. Rajagopalachari

(d)       B. R. Ambedkar

Ans: (d)

38.  How long did the Constituent Assembly take to finally pass the Constitution?

(a)        about 6 months in 1949

(b)       exactly a year since Nov 26, 1948

(c)        about 2 years since Aug 15, 1947

(d)       about 3 years since Dec 9, 1946

Ans: (d)

39.       Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly?

(a)        Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

(b)       Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c)        Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(d)       C. Rajagopalachari

Ans: (b)

40.       The demand for the Constituent Assembly was put forward by the Indian National Congress in 1936 at its session held at :

(a)        Kanpur

(b)       Bombay

(c)        Lucknow

(d)       Lahore

Ans: (c)

41.       The Constituent Assembly arrived at decisions on the various provisions of the Constitution:

(a)        by a majority vote

(b)       by a two-thirds majority

(c)        by consensus

(d)       unanimously

Ans: (c)

42.       The most profound influence on the drafting of the Indian Constitution was exercised by the

(a)        U.S. Constitution

(b)       British Constitution

(c)        Government of India Act, 1935

(d)       French ideals of Liberty and Fraternity

Ans: (c)

43.       Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)        The Constituent Assembly of India was elected by the Provincial Assemblies in the year 1946

(b)       Jawaharlal Nehru; M.A. Jinnah and Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel were members of the Constituent Assembly of India

(c)        The First Session of the Constituent Assembly of India was held in January, 1947

(d)       The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th January, 1952

Ans: (a)                                              

44.       The design of the National Flag was adopted by the Constitutent Assembly of India in:

(a)        July, 1948

(b)       July, 1950

(c)        July, 1947

(d)       August, 1948

Ans: (c)

45.       Which of the following proved to be the most short lived of all the British constitutional experiments in India?

(a)        Government of India Act, 1919

(b)       Indian Council Act, 1909

(c)        Pitt's India Act, 1784

(d)       Government of India Act, 1935

Ans: (b)

46.       Which one of the following Acts formally introduced the principles of elections for the first time?

(a)        Indian Councils Act, 1909

(b)       Government of India Act, 1919

(c)        Government of India Act, 1935

(d)       Indian Independence Act, 1947

Ans: (a)

47.       Which of the following Acts gave representation to Indians for the first time in the Legislature?

(a)        Indian Councils Act, 1909

(b)       Indian Councils Act, 1919

(c)        Government of India Act 1935

(d)       None of the above

Ans: (c)

48.       The Crown took the Government of India into its own hands by :

(a)        Charter Act, 1833

(b)       Government of India Act, 1858

(c)        Indian Council Act, 1861

(d)       Government of India Act, 1935

Ans: (b)

49.       The nationalist demand for a Constituent Assembly was for the first time conceded by the British Government, though indirectly and with reservations in the:

(a)        Cripps proposals

(b)       August Offer

(c)        Cabinet Mission Plan

(d)       Act of 1935

Ans: (b)

50.       Which of the following was adopted from the Maurya dynasty in the emblem of Government of India?

(a)        Four lions

(b)       Chariot wheel

(c)        Horse

(d)       Words 'Satyameva Jayate’

Ans: (a)

51.       The office of Governor General of India was created by:

(a)        Charter Act, 1813

(b)       Charter Act, 1833

(c)        Government of India Act, 1858

(d)       Government of India Act, 1935

Ans: (c)

52.       Who among the following is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?

(a)        Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(b)       Mahatma Gandhi

(c)        Jawaharlal Nehru

(d)       Vallabhbhai PateI

Ans: (a)

53.       When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of England, announce the transfer of power to the Indians?

(a)        February, 1947

(b)       August, 1947

(c)        June, 1948

(d)       June, 1949

Ans: (c)

54.       Who proposed the Preamble before the Drafting Committee of the Constitution?

(a)        Jawaharlal Nehru

(b)       B.R. Ambedkar

(c)        B.N. Rao

(d)       Mahatma Gandhi

Ans: (a)

55.       Which of the following is correct regarding the Indian Constitution?

(a)        It is completely based on British Constitution

(b)       It is made only on the basis of Government of India Act, 1935

(c)        It is a mixture of several Constitutions

(d)       It is original

Ans: (c)                                              

56.       The amendment procedure laid down in the Constitution of India is on the pattern of?

(a)        Government of India Act, 1935

(b)       Government of India Act, 1947

(c)        Constitution of South Africa

(d)       Constitution of Uk

Ans: (c)

57.       The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held in :

(a)        Bombay

(b)       Calcutta

(c)        Lahore

(d)       New Delhi

Ans: (d)

58.       Who among the following was the Chairman of the Union Constitution Committee of the Constituent Assembly?

(a)        B.R. Ambedkar

(b)       J.B. Kripalani

(c)        Jawaharlal Nehru

(d)       Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar

Ans: (c)

59.       Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly?

(a)        Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(b)       Acharya J.B. Kriplani

(c)        Lok Nayak Jayprakash Narayan

(d)       K.M. Munshi

Ans: (c)

60.       Who was the first Foreign Minister of free India?

(a)        Jawaharlal Nehru

(b)       Gulzari Lal Nanda

(c)        Lal Bahadur Shastri

(d)       John Mathai

Ans: (a)

61.       Under whom among the following was the first draft of the Constitution of India prepared in October 1947 by the advisory branch of the office of the Constituent Assembly?

(a)        Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(b)       Jawaharlal Nehru

(c)        K.M. Munshi

(d)       B.N. Rau

Ans: (d)

62.       Which one among the following is a fundamental duty of citizens under the Constitution of India?

(a)        To provide friendly cooperation to the people of the neighbouring countries

(b)       To protect monuments of national importance

(c)        To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so

(d)       To know more and more about the history of India

Ans: (c)

63.       The first effort at drafting a Dominion Status Constitution for India was made in response to the

(a)        Minto-Morley Reforms

(b)       Montague-Chelmsford Reforms

(c)        Simon Commission

(d)       First Round Table Conference

Ans: (c)

64.       The Constitution of India was promulgated on January 26, 1950 because:

(a)        this day was being celebrated as the Independence Day since 1929

(b)       it was the wish of the framers of the Constitution

(c)        the British did not want to leave India earlier than this date

(d)       it was an auspicious day

Ans: (a)

65.       The idea of the Constitution of India was first of all given by :

(a)        Mahatma Gandhi

(b)       Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(c)        Jawaharlal Nehru

(d)       M.N. Roy

Ans: (d)

66.       The members of the Constituent Assembly were:

(a)        elected by Provincial Assemblies

(b)       elected directly by people

(c)        nominated by the government

(d)       only representatives of the princely States

Ans: (a)

67.       Who among the following was not a member of the Constituent Assembly established in July 1946?

(a)         Vallabhbhai Patel

(b)       Mahatma Gandhi

(c)        K.M. Munshi

(d)       J.B. Kripalani

Ans: (b)

68.       India became a Sovereign, democratic republic on :

(a)        Aug 15, 1947

(b)       Jan 30, 1948

(c)        Jan 26, 1950

(d)       Nov 26, 1929

Ans: (c)

69.       Which one of the following made the Indian Legislature bicameral:

(a)        Indian Councils Act, 1909

(b)       Government of India Act, 1919

(c)        Government of India Act, 1935

(d)       Indian Independence Act, 1947

Ans: (b)

70.       The first attempt at introducing a representative and popular element in administration was made by :

(a)        Indian Councils Act, 1900

(b)       Indian Councils Act, 1909

(c)        Government of India Act, 1935

(d)       Indian Councils Act, 1919

Ans: (b)

71.       The Government of India Act, 1935 vested the residuary power in the:

(a)        British Parliament

(b)       Federal Legislature

(c)        State Legislature

(d)       Governor-General

Ans: (d)

72.       Which of the following was not one of the features of Government of India Act, 1935 ?

(a)        Provincial autonomy

(b)       Dyarchy of centre

(c)        Bicameral Legislature

(d)       All India federation

Ans: (c)

73.       Which one of the following aimed at providing a federal structure for India?

(a)        Indian Council Act, 1909

(b)       Montague-Chelmsford Reforms Act, 1919

(c)        Charter Act, 1831

(d)       Government of India Act, 1935

Ans: (d)

74.       What was the main stipulation of Government of India Act, 1935 ?

(a)        A federation was suggested

(b)       Unitary form of government was recommended

(c)        Complete independence guaranteed

(d)       Dyarchy was made applicable at provincial level

Ans: (c)

75.       The Constitution of India borrowed the scheme of Indian Federation from the Constitution of:

(a)        USA

(b)       Canada

(c)        Ireland

(d)       UK

Ans: (b)

76.       The Indian Constitution closely follows the constitutional system of:

(a)        USA

(b)       UK

(c)        Switzerland

(d)       Russia

Ans: (b)

77.       Which of the following is a feature common to both the Indian Federation and the American Federation?

(a)        A single citizenship

(b)       Dual Judiciary

(c)        Three lists in the Constitution

(d)       A Federal Supreme Court to interpret the Constitution

Ans: (d)

78.       The inspiration of 'Liberty, Equality and Fraternity' was derived from:

(a)         American revolution

(b)       French revolution

(c)        Russian revolution

(d)       None of the above

Ans: (b)

79.       Indian President and Prime Minister are a replica of the heads of the State of which country ?

(a)        Britain

(b)       USA

(c)        Ireland

(d)       Russia

Ans: (a)

80.       The President of the Indian Union has the same constitutional authority as the:

(a)        British Monarch

(b)       President of USA

(c)        President of Egypt

(d)       President of Russia

Ans: (a)

81.       Which of the following describes India as a Secular State?

(a)        Fundamental Rights

(b)       Ninth Schedule

(c)        Directive Principles

(d)       Preamble to the Constitution

Ans: (d)

82.       In a parliamentary form of government, real powers of the State are vested in the:

(a)        Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister

(b)       President

(c)        Government

(d)       Parliament

Ans: (a)

83.       Which of the following is not a basic feature of the Indian Constitution?

(a)        Presidential Government

(b)       Parliamentary Government

(c)        Federal Government

(d)       Independence of Judiciary

Ans: (a)

84.       Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary form of government?

(a)        Executive is responsible to Judiciary

(b)       Executive is responsible to Legislature

(c)        Judiciary is responsible to Executive

(d)       Legislature is responsible to Executive

Ans: (b)

85.       Which of the following features does the Indian Constitution borrow from the Weimar Constitution of Germany?

(a)        The idea of a federation with a strong centre

(b)       The method of presidential elections

(c)        The Emergency powers

(d)       Provisions concerning the suspension of fundamental rights during National Emergency

Ans: (d)

86.       Which Constitution has inspired the Indian concepts of rule of law, parliamentary system and law-making procedure?

(a)        US Constitution

(b)       British Constitution

(c)        Canadian Constitution

(d)       All of the above

Ans: (b)

87.       The Constitution of India is designed to work as a unitary government:

(a)        in normal times

(b)       in times of Emergency

(c)        when the Parliament so desires

(d)       at the will of the President

Ans: (b)

88.       Which of the following features of the Constitution of India does not resemble the American Constitution?

(a)        Written Constitution

(b)       Federal form of government

(c)        Fundamental Rights

(d)       Parliamentary form of government

Ans: (d)

89.       Which one of the following statements regarding the Preamble is correct?

(a)        It is not enforceable in a court of law

(b)       the Supreme Court has recently ruled that it is not a part of the Constitution

(c)        It has been amended twice

(d)       All the above are correct

Ans: (a)

90.       The Indian Constitution has borrowed the ideas of Preamble from the:

(a)        Italian Constitution

(b)       Canadian Constitution

(c)        French Constitution

(d)       Constitution of USA

Ans: (d)

91.       Secularism means:

(a)        suppression of all religions

(b)       freedom of worship to minorities

(c)        separation of religion from State

(d)       a system of political and social philosophy that does not favour any particular religious faith

Ans: (d)

92.     In a Federal State:

(a)        States are more powerful than the Centre

(b)       Centre is more powerful than States

(c)        a Presidential form of government functions

(d)       Constitution effects division of powers between the Centre and States with safeguards against transgression of jurisdiction

Ans: (a)

93.       India opted for a federal form of government because of:

(a)        vast-territory

(b)       cultural integration

(c)        linguistic and regional diversity

(d)       administrative convenience

Ans: (c)

94.       The Preamble of the Indian Constitution reads:

(a)        We, the people of India – adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution'

(b)       We, the people of Constitutent Assembly –adopt, enact and give to India this Constitution

(c)        We, the citizens of India – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution

(d)       We, the people of India – in our Constituent Assembly – adopt, enact and give to ourselves this Constitution

Ans: (d)

95.       Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)        Preamble of the Constitution is the part of the Constitution and can be amended under Article 368

(b)       Preamble of the Constitution is not a part of the Constitution and cannot be amended

(c)        Preamble is the part of the basic structure of the Constitution and can be amended only if no change in the basic structure is made

(d)       Preamble can be amended by Parliament simply by an objective Resolution

Ans: (c)

96.       The word 'socialist secular' and 'unity and integrity of the Nation' were added to our Constitution by :

(a)        42nd Amendment of the Constitution

(b)       44th Amendment of the Constitution

(c)        46th Amendment of the Constitution

(d)       None of the above

Ans: (a)

97.       The Preamble of the Constitution of India envisages that:

(a)        it shall stand part of the Constitution

(b)       it could be abrogated or wiped out from the Constitution

(c)        it does not acknowledge, recognise or proclaim anything about the Constitution

(d)       it has separate entity in the Constitution

Ans: (d)

98.       The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is:

(a)        Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic

(b)       Sovereign, Democratic Republic

(c)        Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic

(d)       Sovereign, Secular, Socialist Democracy

Ans: (c)

99.       India is a democratic republic, because:

(a)        there is independence of judiciary

(b)       the Head of the State is elected by the people

(c)        there is distribution of powers between the Centre and the States

(d)       there is Parliamentary supremacy

Ans: (b)

100.     The Preamble of our Constitution:

(a)        is a part of the Constitution

(b)       contains the spirit of the Constitution

(c)        is a limitation upon the granted power

(d)       None of the above

Ans: (b)

For more Subjectwise and Topicwise Quiz Questions Click Here

Topic 2 : GK Quiz Question of Indian Polity and Geography

1.         Which of the following is not a part of the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?

(a)        Secularism

(b)       Sociaiism

(c)        Democratic Republic

(d)       Federalism

Ans: (d)

2.         The source of India's sovereignty lies in the:

(a)        President

(b)       Prime Minister

(c)        People of India

(d)       Preamble to the Constitution

Ans: (d)

3.         Who among the following moved the Objectives Resolution which formed tile basis of the Preamble of the Constitution of India in the Constituent Assembly on Dec 13, 1946?

(a)        Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

(b)       Dr. Rajendra Prasad

(c)        Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(d)       Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru

Ans: (d)

4.         The constitution of India is republican because it

(a)        provides for an elected Parliament

(b)       provides for adult franchise

(c)        contains a bill of rights

(d)       has no hereditary elements

Ans: (d)

5.  Which one among the following statements is not correct ?

The word 'socialist' in the Preamble of the Constitution of India, read with

(a)        Article 39(d), would enable the Court to uphold the constitutionality of nationalization

laws

(b)       Articles 14, would enable the Court to strike down a statute which failed to achieve the socialist goal to the fullest extent

(c)        Article 25, would enable the Court to ensure freedom guaranteed under that Article

(d)       Article 23, would enable the Court to reduce inequality in income and status

Ans: (c)

6.         In India, the concept of single citizenship is adopted from

(a)        England

(b)       U.S.A.

(c)        Canada

(d)       France

Ans: (a)

7.         The Indian Constitution comprises of

(a)        395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules

(b)       371 Articles, 21 Parts and 11 Schedules

(c)        372 Articles, 20 Parts and 7 Schedules

(d)       381 Articles, 23 Parts and 8 Schedules

Ans: (a)

8.         From which of the countries, Constitution of India has adopted fundamental duties?

(a)        USA

(b)       Canada

(c)        Erstwhile USSR

(d)       UK

Ans: (c)

9.         The word 'Socialist' was added to the Preamble, its main aim is to :

(a)        eliminate inequality in economic and political status

(b)       eliminate inequality in political and religious affairs

(c)        eliminate inequality in income and status and standards of life

(d)       eliminate class based society

Ans: (a)

10.       Which of the pairs is correctly matched?

(a)        Republic - Head of the State is hereditary Monarch

(b)       Sovereign - Constitution rests on people's will

(c)        Democratic - Constitution does not recognise legal supremacy of another country

(d)       Secular - State is without any religion of its own

Ans: (d)

11.       The Preamble enshrines certain ideals that were first spelt out in:

(a)        the speech by Jawaharlal Nehru on the banks of Ravi when he called for Purna Swaraj

(b)       the Nehru Report

(c)        a resolution adopted at Karachi session of the Indian National Congress

(d)       the Objectives Resolution adopted by the Constituent Assembly

Ans: (d)

12.       The part of the Constitution that reflects the mind and ideals of the framers is :

(a)        directive principles

(b)       fundamental rights

(c)        preamble

(d)       citizenship

Ans: (c)

13.       Which of the following determines that the Indian Constitution is federal?

(a)        A written and rigid Constitution

(b)       An independent Judiciary

(c)        Vesting of residuary powers with the Centre

(d)       Distribution of powers between the Centre and States

Ans: (d)

14.       The Indian Constitution is regarded as :

(a)        federal

(b)       unitary

(c)        parliamentary

(d)       federal in form and unitary in spirit

Ans: (d)

15.       Lunar Sea refers to :

(a)        a small sea on the moon

(b)       a sea on earth which experiences high tides due to gravitational attraction of the moon

(c)        a dark plain on the moon

(d)       a light water body illuminated by the moon-light

Ans: (c)

16.       'Parsec' is the unit of measurement of:

(a)        density of star

(b)       astronomical distance

(c)        brightness of heavenly bodies

(d)       orbital velocity of giant stars

Ans: (b)

17.       The sunspots cause:

(a)        aurora borealis and aurora australis

(b)       magnetic storms on the surface of the sun

(c)        polar auroras

(d)       all of these

Ans: (d)

18.       The light cming from stars gives the idea of their:

(a)        size

(b)       rotational speed

(c)        mass

(d)       temperature

Ans: (d)

19.       The Milky way extends through a distance:

(a)        1 light year

(b)       8 light years

(c)        105 light years

(d)       1010 light years

Ans: (c)

20.       The period of one revolution of sun around the centre of galaxy is called:

(a)        Parsec

(b)       Astronomical year

(c)        Cosmic year

(d)       Light year

Ans: (c)

21.       Super Nova is :

(a)        an asteroid

(b)       a black hole

(c)        a comet

(d)       a dying star

Ans: (d)

22.       The altitudes of heavenly bodies appear to be greater than they actually are. This is

due to:

(a)        vertical motion of these heavenly bodies

(b)       motions of the earth

(c)        atmospheric refraction

(d)       these are visible because of light of the sun reflected from their surface

Ans: (c)

23.       The same side of the moon always faces the Earth because:

(a)        Moon and the Earth have gravitational force

(b)       Moon cannot change its position

(c)        the period of rotation of the Moon on its axis and period of revolution around' the Earth is almost the same

(d)       the period of rotation of the Moon is not equal to the period of rotation of the Earth

Ans: (c)

24.       Who of the following discovered the laws of planetary orbits?

(a)        Galileo Galilei

(b)       Nicholas Copernicus

(c)        Johanries Kepler

(d)       Isaac Newton

Ans: (c)

25.       Twelve constellations referred to as zodiac are:

(a)        signs of Roman gods

(b)       imaginary region that encompass the path of the planets

(c)        a group of stars

(d)       none of these

Ans: (c)

26.       The term 'meteor' is applied to an interplanetary body:

(a)        after it enters the atmosphere of the earth

(b)       after it enters the earth's atmosphere and explodes in mid air as a ball of fire

(c)        after it enters the earth's atmosphere and lands on the surface of the earth without exploding in mid-air

(d)       before it enters the earth's atmosphere

Ans: (b)

27.       Which one of the following statements regarding Shooting Stars is incorrect ?

(a)        They are meteors

(b)       They are the debris which got separated from a come

(c)        They emit light due to extremely high temperature caused by friction while they are passing through earth's atmosphere

(d)       They are a kind of a star

Ans: (d)

28.       The planets are kept in motion in their respective orbits by :

(a)        their great size and spherical shape

(b)       the rotation and density

(c)        gravitation and centrifugal force

(d)       rotation of the sun on its axis

Ans: (c)

29.       The distance of the nearest star besides the sun from the earth is :

(a)        4.9 x 1111m

(b)       95 x1015 m

(c)        4.3 light years

(d)       4.2 light years

Ans: (d)

30.       The time required by moonlight to reach the earth is :

(a)        1 sec

(b)       1.3 sec

(c)        2 sec

(d)       2.3 sec

Ans: (b)

31.       The strongest evidence that comets are members of our solar system comes from:

(a)        their composition

(b)       their effect on the lives of man

(c)        the shape of their orbits

(d)       the shape and length of their tails

Ans: (a)

32.The constellations of stars appear at different positions in the sky at different times during night mainly:

(a)        because earth rotates about its axis

(b)       because earth revolves round the sun

(c)        because of optical illusion

(d)       because celestial bodies are changing their positions all the time

Ans: (a)

33.       If there is no Sun, the colour of the sky would be:

(a)        orange

(b)       blue

(c)        yellow

(d)       black

Ans: (d)

34.       The Saturn rings were discovered by:

(a)        Copernicus

(b)       Newton

(c)        Galileo

(d)       none of these

Ans: (c)

35.       The 'Solar Corona' mainly consists of:

(a)        cosmic rays

(b)       molten lava

(c)        gases

(d)       ice

Ans: (b)

36.       Comets are celestial bodies moving about the solar system in

(a)        elliptical or hyperbolic orbits, usually accompanied by a shining tail

(b)       elliptical orbits usually accompanied by a long shining tail

(c)        hyperbolic orbit always accompanied by a shining head

(d)       hyperbolic orbit without projecting any tail or heat

Ans: (b)

37.       Foucault experiment is proof of which one of the following?

(a)        Revolution of Earth

(b)       Rotation of Earth

(c)        Rotation of Moon

(d)       Revolution of Moon

Ans: (b)

38.       The radiant energy of the sun is transmitted in the form of:

(a)        short waves

(b)       long waves

(c)        particles

(d)       none of these

Ans: (a)

39.       While Venus is seen only for one to two hours either after sunset or before sunrise,

Jupiter is seen for the whole night whenever it is visible in the sky. The reason for this is that:

(a)        Venus is much smaller than Jupiter

(b)       Venus is much closer to the earth than Jupiter

(c)        the orbit of Venus is inside the earth's orbit whereas the orbit of Jupiter lies outside the orbit of the earth

(d)       Venus reflects lesser amount of sunlight than Jupiter

Ans: (c)

40.       Among the following which planet takes maximum time for one revolution around the Sun?

(a)        Earth

(b)       Jupiter

(c)        Mars

(d)       Venus

Ans: (b)

41.       Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to our solar system?

(a)        The Earth is the densest of all the planets in our solar system

(b)       The predominant element in the composition of Earth is silicon

(c)        The Sun contains 75 percent of the mass of the solar system

(d)       The diameter of the Sun is 190 times that of the Earth

Ans: (a)

42.       The Srnith-tuttle comet will crash with Earth in:

(a)        2106 AD

(b)       2116 AD

(c)        2126 AD

(d)       2136 AD

Ans: (b)

43.       The correct sequence of the following planets in terms of gravity, in the descending order is :

(a)        Saturn, Earth, Neptune, Uranus

(b)       Neptune, Uranus, Saturn, Earth

(c)        Uranus, Earth, Saturn, Neptune

(d)       Earth, Uranus, Neptune, Saturn

Ans: (d)

44.       Which of the following gases is most predominant in the Sun?

(a)        Helium

(b)       Hydrogen

(c)        Nitrogen

(d)       Ozone

Ans: (b)

45.       NASA's Deep Impact space mission was employed to take detailed pictures of which comet nucleus?

(a)        Halley's Comet

(b)       Hale-Bopp

(c)        Hyakutake

(d)       Tempel 1

Ans: (d)

46.       A blackhole is a :

(a)        contracted star with intense gravitational pull

(b)       star with very low surface temperature

(c)        star with no atmosphere

(d)       pulsating star

Ans: (a)

47.       Which one of the following is correct? Great Bear is a :

(a)        galaxy

(b)       planet

(c)        star

(d)       constellation

Ans: (d)

48.       Asteroids have their orbits between the planets:

(a)        Mercury and Venus

(b)       Earth and Mars

(c)        Mars and Jupiter

(d)       Jupiter and Saturn

Ans: (c)

49 .Halley's comet appears once in a period of:

(a)        24 years

(b)       32 years

(c)        76 years

(d)       84 years

Ans: (c)

50.       The orbits of planets around the Sun, or of satellites around the Earth, can be :

(a)        circular and elliptic

(b)       circular and hyperbolic

(c)        elliptic and parabolic

(d)       parabolic and hyperbolic

Ans: (a)

51.       To a space traveller on moon, the lunar sky during day time appears:

(a)        white

(b)       blue

(c)        black

(d)       red

Ans: (c)

52.       The distance between the Earth and the Sun (in million kms.) is :

(a)        111

(b)       149

(c)        168

(d)       193

Ans: (b)

53.       Stars which appear single to the naked eye but are double stars when observed by a telescope, are known as :

(a)        cosmic stars

(b)       quasars

(c)        binaries

(d)       novae and supernovae

Ans: (c)

54.       What are Sun spots?

(a)        Regions on earth without winter climate

(b)       Desert areas on the sun

(c)        Dark patches on the surface of the sun which are cooler areas

(d)       Dark patches on the surface of the Sun resulting from a localised fall in the temperature to about 4000 K

Ans: (d)

55.       The brightest star in the sky is:

(a)        Alfa Centauri

(b)       Proxima Centauri

(c)        Sirius

(d)       Sun

Ans: (d)

56.       Pole Star is always seen at one point in the sky whereas other stars are not; this is because:

(a)        Pole star rotates with the same period as the earth

(b)       Pole star is a star of our own galaxy

(c)        Sun and Pole star are in two opposite directions relative to earth

(d)       Pole star lies in the axis of spin of the earth

Ans: (d)

57.       The outermost layer of Sun is called:

(a)        convection zone

(b)       photosphere

(c)        chromosphere

(d)       corona

Ans: (d)

58.       Under which Article of the Constitution are the Cultural and Educational Rights granted?

(a)        Article 29 and 31

(b)       Article 29 and 32

(c)        Article 29 and 30

(d)       Article 30 and 31

Ans: (c)

59.       Which of the following is not specifically mentioned in Article 19 of the Constitution?

(a)        Freedom of speech and expression

(b)       Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms

(c)        Freedom to move freely

(d)       Freedom of the press

Ans: (d)

60.       Right to Constitutional Remedies comes under:

(a)        Fundamental Right

(b)       Legal Rights

(c)        Constitutional Rights

(d)       Natural Rights

Ans: (a)

61.       If an Indian citizen is denied a public office because of his religion, which of the following Fundamental Rights is denied to him?

(a)        Right to Freedom

(b)       Right to Equality

(c)        Right to Freedom of Religion

(d)       Right against Exploitation

Ans: (b)

62.       Fundamental Freedoms under Article 19 are suspended during emergency caused by:

(a)        war or external aggression

(b)       failure of constitutional machinery of a State

(c)        internal armed rebellion

(d)       financial crisis

Ans: (a)

63.       The theory of Fundamental Rights implies:

(a)        sovereignty of the people

(b)       equality of opportunity for all

(c)        limited government

(d)       equality of all before law

Ans: (c)

64.       Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion etc. (Article 15 of the Constitution of India) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under:

(a)        the Right to Freedom of Religion

(b)       the Right against Exploitation

(c)        the Cultural and Educational Rights

(d)       the Right to Equality

Ans: (d)

65.       Any dispute regarding the violation of Fundamental Rights can be presented :

(a)        in the Supreme Court only

(b)       in the High Court only

(c)        either in the Supreme Court or in the High Court

(d)       first in the Supreme Court and then in the High Court

Ans: (c)

66.       Indian Constitution recognises minorities on the basis of:

(a)        religion

(b)       caste

(c)        population

(d)       colour

Ans: (a)

67.       The Fundamental individual are:

(a)        limited to the State action only

(b)       meant to protect persons against the conduct of private persons

(c)        meant to protect persons against the police action

(d)       All of the above are correct

Ans: (d)

68.       Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to :

(a)        all persons living within the territory of India

(b)       all Indian citizens living in India

(c)        all persons domiciled in India

(d)       all persons natural as well as artificial

Ans: (a)

69.       Which Schedule of the Constitution of India contains special provisions for the administration and control of Scheduled Areas in several States?

(a)        Third

(b)       Fifth

(c)        Seventh

(d)       Ninth

Ans: (b)

70.       Untouchability is abolished and its practice is punishable according to :

(a)        Article 15

(b)       Article 16

(c)        Article 17

(d)       Article 15(4)

Ans: (c)

71.       Which one is not correctly matched?

(a)        Freedom of speech and expression - Include freedom of press

(b)       Freedom of conscience - Include right to wear and carry kirpans by Sikhs

(c)        Right to Personal liberty - Include right to carry on any trade or business

(d)       Right to Equality - Include principles of natural justice

Ans: (c)

72.       As far as Armed Forces are concerned, the fundamental rights• granted under Articles

14 and 19 of the Constitution are:

(a)        not available at all

(b)       available to armed forces but not to other forces

(c)        available only at the discretion of the chief of army staff

(d)       available only according to law made by Parliament

Ans: (d)

73.       Right to education is a fundamental right emanating from right to :

(a)        freedom of speech and expression under Article 19 (1) (a)

(b)       culture and education under Articles 29 and 30

(c)        life and personal liberty under Article 21

(d)       equality before law and equal protection of law under Article 14

Ans: (c)

74.       The Constitution names our country as :

(a)        Bharat

(b)       India, that is Bharat

(c)        Hindustan

(d)       Aryavarta

Ans: (b)

75.       The Constitution provides that Hindi shall be:

(a)        the national language of India

(b)       the language of communication between the State Governments

(c)        the official language of the Union of India

(d)       the language of communication between the Union Government and the State Governments

Ans: (c)

76.       What is the minimum permissible age for employment in any factory or mine?

(a)        12 years

(b)       14 years

(c)        16 years

(d)       18 years

Ans: (b)

77.       Which of the following is not a condition for becoming a citizen of India?

(a)        Birth

(b)       Acquiring property

(c)        Descent

(d)       Naturalisation

Ans: (b)

78.       Who is competent to prescribe conditions as for acquiring Indian citizenship?

(a)        Parliament

(b)       State Legislatures

(c)        President

(d)       Attorney General

Ans: (a)

79.  Which of the following statements regarding the acquisition of Indian citizenship is

correct ?

(a)        If citizenship is to be acquired by registration, six months residence in India is essential.

(b)       If citizenship is to be acquired by naturalisation the person concerned must have resided in India for 5 years

(c)        If born in India, only that person can acquire citizenship at least one of whose parents is an Indian

(d)       Rules regarding the citizenship of India shall not be applicable to Jammu and Kashmir.

Ans: (c)

80.       According to the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship cannot be acquired by:

(a)        children of the diplomatic personnel or alien enemies born in India on or after 26th January, 1950

(b)       children born of Indian citizens abroad

(c)        incorporation of territory not forming part of India at the commencement of the Constitution

(d)       naturalization

Ans: (a)

81.       Citizenship provisions are enshrined in the Constitution in :

(a)        Part II

(b)       Part II, Articles 5-11

(c)        Part II, Articles 5-6

(d)       Part I, Articles 5-11

Ans: (b)

82.       Which of the following Articles describes about the person voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign state not to be citizens?

(a)        Article 5

(b)       Article 7

(c)        Article 8

(d)       Article 9

Ans: (d)

83.       Article 6 enshrines the provision conferring Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan. Which one of the following provisions is incorrect?

(a)        He or either of his parents or any of his grand-parents was born in India as defined in the Government of India Act, 1935

(b)       Such person has so migrated before 19 July, 1948

(c)        Such person has so migrated on or after the 19 July, 1948, he has been registered as a citizen

(d)       Such person has got married in India

Ans: (a)

84.       Details on how citizenship may be acquired and terminated are enumerated in:

(a)        Part II of the Constitution

(b)       the Citizenship Act, 1955

(c)        Schedule I of the Constitution

(d)       various enactments by Parliament

Ans: (b)

 

85.       A person can become a citizen of India even if born outside India if his/her:

(a)        father is a citizen of India

(b)       mother is a citizen of India

(c)        father is a citizen of India at the time of the person's birth

(d)       father or mother is a citizen of India at the time of the person's birth

Ans: (d)

86.       To acquire citizenship by registration a person must have been resident in India for ______ immediately before making an application:

(a)        six months

(b)       one year

(c)        three years

(d)       five years

Ans: (d)

87.       Which of the following rights was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as 'The Heart and Soul of the Constitution' ?

(a)        Right of Freedom of Religion

(b)       Right to Property

(c)        Right to Equality

(d)       Right to Constitutional Remedies

Ans: (d)

88.       Which of the following Fundamental Rights is also available to a foreigner on the soil of India?

(a)        Equality of opportunity in the matter of public employment

(b)       Freedoms of movement, residence and profession

(c)        Protection from discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste or sex

(d)       Protection of life and personal liberty against action without authority of law

Ans: (d)

89.       On whom does the Constitution confer special responsibility for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

(a)        Parliament

(b)       Supreme Court

(c)        President

(d)       State legislature

Ans: (b)

90.       According to Article 23, the following are prohibited:

(a)        traffic in human beings, beggary, slavery and bonded labour

(b)       monopoly of trade

(c)        sale of incenses

(d)       visit to terrorist infected areas

Ans: (a)

91.       Articles 20-22 relate to the fundamental right to life and personal liberty. These rights are available to :

(a)        citizens and non-citizens

(b)       natural persons as well as artificial persons

(c)        citizen only

(d)       all persons who have juristic personality

Ans: (a)

92.       Which one of the following has been dropped from the list of personal freedoms enshrined in Article 19 of the Constitution?

(a)        Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms

(b)       Freedom to acquire, hold and dispose of property

(c)        Freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country

(d)       Freedom to carry on any profession, occupation; trade or business

Ans: (b)

93.       Once the proclamation of emergency is made, the right of a citizen to move to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of his fundamental right is suspended by the:

(a)        Prime Minister of India

(b)       President of India

(c)        Speaker of Lok Sabha

(d)       Chief Justice of Supreme Court

Ans: (b)

94.       Under Article 368, Parliament has no power to repeal Fundamental Rights because they are:

(a)        enshrined in Part III of the Constitution

(b)       human rights

(c)        transcendental rights

(d)       part of bask structure of essential framework of the Constitution

Ans: (d)

95.       The enforcement of Directive Principles depends most on :

(a)        the Courts

(b)       an effective opposition in Parliament

(c)        resources available to the Government

(d)       public cooperation

Ans: (c)

96.       In the Constitution, opportunities for the development of scientific temper, humanism and spirit of inquiry and reform are found in :

(a)        Fundamental Rights

(b)       Preamble

(c)        Fundamental Futies

(d)       Directive Principles

Ans: (c)

97.       The Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were provided by :

(a)        an amendment of the Constiution

(b)       a judgement of the Supreme Court

(c)        an order issued by the President

(d)       a Legislation adopted by the Parliament

Ans: (a)

98.       The total number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution is :

(a)        9

(b)       10

(c)        11

(d)       12

Ans: (c)

99.       Fundamental duties enacted in Part IV A of the Constitution are:

(a)        enforceable duties and Parliament can impose penalties or punishments for the non-compliance

(b)       like Directive Principles that : are mandates to people

(c)        like Fundamental Rights that are enforceable

(d)       no more than meant to create psychological consciousness among the citizens and of education value

Ans: (d)

100.     Fundamental duties have been added in the Constitution by 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 in accordance with the recommendations of:

(a)        Santhanam Committee

(b)       Sarkaria Committee

(c)        Swaran Singh Committee

(d)       Indira Gandhi Committee

Ans: (c)

Amazon Quiz Questions are Known before answering, is it a therefore a Quiz or a Lucky Draw?

Topic 3 : Indian Polity and Geography GK Quiz Questions

1.         Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is:

(a)        Fundamental Right of every citizen

(b)       Fundamental Duty of every citizen

(c)        Directive Principle of State policy

(d)       ordinary duty of every citizen

Ans: (b)

2.         The Fundamental Duties were included in the Constitution with the idea of:

(a)        giving more importance to the Fundamental Rights

(b)       curbing subversive and unconstitutional activities

(c)        preventing abuse of Fundamental Rights

(d)       giving more power to the executive

Ans: (b)

3.         The Constitution describes India as a :

(a)        Federation of States

(b)       Union of States

(c)        Confederation of States

(d)       Unitary State

Ans: (b)

4.         Which one of the following subjects is under the Union List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India ? [

(a)        Regulation of labour and safety in mines and oilfields

(b)       Agriculture

(c)        Fisheries

(d)       Public health

Ans: (a)

5.         Which one among the following statements regarding the constitutionally guaranteed Right to Education in India is correct?

(a)        This right covers both child and adult illiteracy and' therefore universally guarantees education to all citizens of India

(b)       This right is a child right covering the age group of 6 to 14 years and becomes operational from the year 2015

(c)        This right has been taken from the British Constitution which was the first Welfare State in the world

(d)       This right has been given to all Indian children between the ages of 6 to 14 Years under the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act

Ans: (d)

6.         Which is the competent body to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship?

(a)        Election Commission

(b)       President

(c)        Parliament

(d)       Parliament and Assemblies

Ans: (c)

            7.         Right to Information is

(a)        fundamental right

(b)       legal right

(c)        neither fundamental right nor legal right

(d)       both fundamental right as well as legal Right

Ans: (a)

8.         Which one among the following pairs is no correctly matched?

(a)        Power of the Parliament : Creating a new state

(b)       Power of state legislature : Altering the name of the state

(c)        Equality before law : Guaranteed to both Indian citizens and noncitizens

(d)       Equality of opportunity :  Guaranteed to only Indian citizens

Ans: (b)

9.Which one among the following is not guaranteed by the Constitution of India?

(a)        Freedom to move freely throughout the country

(b)       Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms

(c)        Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property anywhere in the country

(d)       Freedom to practice any trade or profession

Ans: (c)

10.       The purpose of Directive Principles of State Policy is to

(a)        lay down positive instructions which would guide State Policy at all levels

(b)       implement Gandhiji's idea for a decentralized state

(c)        check the use of arbitrary powers by the government

(d)       promote welfare of the backward sections of the society

Ans: (a)

11.       In which case did the Supreme Court restore the primacy of the Fundamental Rights over the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a)        Golaknath Case

(b)       Keshavananda Bharti Case

(c)        Minerva Mills Case

(d)       All the above cases

Ans: (a)

12.       Which of the following rights conferred by the Constitution of India is also available to non-citizens?

(a)        Right to constitutional remedies

(b)       Freedom to speech

(c)        Freedom to move and settle in any part of the country

(d)       Freedom to acquire property

Ans: (b)

13.       Which one of the following is a human right as well as a fundamental right under the Constitution of India?

(a)        Right to Information

(b)       Right to Work

(c)        Right to Education

(d)       Right to Housing

Ans: (c)

14.       Under the Constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

(a)        To vote in public elections

(b)       To develop the scientific temper

(c)        To safeguard public property

(d)       To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

Ans: (a)

15.  A government is federal or unitary on the basis of relations between the:

(a)        three organs of government

(b)       Centre and States

(c)        Legislature and the Executive

(d)       Constitution and the States

Ans: (b)

16.       Regarding equality before law, the Indian Constitution makes exceptions in the case of:

(a)        the President or a Governor

(b)       foreign sovereigns only

(c)        the President only

(d)       None

Ans: (a)

17.       Censorship of the press:

(a)        is prohibited by the Constitution

(b)       has to be judged by the test of reasonableness

(c)        is a restriction on the freedom of the press mentioned in Article 19

(d)       is specified in Article 31 of the Constitution

Ans: (b)

18.       The right against exploitation prohibits children:

(a)        below 14 years of age from employment in family businesses

(b)       below 14 years of age from being employed in hazardous occupations

(c)        below 14 years from working on family farms

(d)       from doing all the above

Ans: (b)

19.       Which of the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens?

(a)        Supreme Court

(b)       Parliament

(c)        President on the advice of the Council of Ministers

(d)       None of these; the restrictions have already been included in the Constitution

Ans: (b)

20.       The right to constitutional remedies in India is a vailable to :

(a)        citizens of India only

(b)       all persons in case of infringement of any fundamental right

(c)        any person for enforcing any of the fundamental rights conferred on all persons

(d)       an aggrieved individual alone

Ans: (b)

21.       The Fundamental Right to ____ has been deleted by the ___ Amendment Act.

(a)        form associations; 44th

(b)       property; 44th

(c)        against exploitation; 42nd

(d)       private property; 42nd

Ans: (b)

22.       Which Article of the Constitution of India says, 'No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment’?

(a)        Article 24

(b)       Article 45

(c)        Article 330

(d)       Article 368

Ans: (a)

23.       Separation of the Judiciary from the Executive is enjoined by :

(a)        Preamble

(b)       Directive Principle

(c)        Seventh Schedule

(d)       Judicial Decision

Ans: (b)

24.       Which Article of the Constitution envisages free and compulsory education for children upto the age of 14 years?

(a)        Article 45

(b)       Article 19

(c)        Article 29

(d)       Article 32

Ans: (a)

25.       Which part of the Constitution deals with the Directive Principles of State Policy?

(a)        Part III

(b)       Part IV

(c)        Part V

(d)       Part II

Ans: (b)

26.       Which of the following is not a Directive Principle of the State Policy?

(a)        To raise the level of nutrition

(b)       To develop the scientific temper

(c)        To promote economic interests of weaker sections

(d)       To separate the Judiciary from the Executive

Ans: (b)

27.       Which of the following Directive Principles is based on Gandhian ideology?

(a)        Equal pay for equal work for both men and women

(b)       Uniform civil code for all citizens

(c)        Separation of Judiciary from Executive

(d)       Promotion of cottage industries

Ans: (d)

28.       Which of the following cannot be termed 'Gandhian' among the Directive Principles?

(a)        Prevention of cow slaughter

(b)       Promotion of cottage industries

(c)        Establishment of village panchayats

(d)       Uniform civil code for the country

Ans: (d)

29.       Which one of the following statements correctly describes the Fourth Schedule of the Constitution of India?

(a)        It contains the scheme of the distribution of power between the Union and the States

(b)       It contains the language listed in the Constitution

(c)        It contains the provisions regarding the administration of tribal areas

(d)       It allocates seats in the Council of States

Ans: (d)

30.       The Twelfth Schedule of the Constitution:

(a)        contains provrsions relating to elections to Panchayats

(b)       contains subjects over which Municipalities may have control

(c)        contains recommendations relating to establishment of State Finance Commission

(d)       was added by the 73rd Amendment Act

Ans: (b)

31.       The Ninth Schedule was added by the ______ Amendment.

(a)        First

(b)       Ninth

(c)        Thirty-fifth

(d)       Thirty-sixth

Ans: (a)

32.       In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is mentioned in the:

(a)        Preamble to the Constitution

(b)       Directive Principles of State Policy

(c)        Fundamental Duties

(d)       Ninth Schedule

Ans: (b)

33.       Which language is not recognised in the 8th Schedule though it is an official language of a State?

(a)        English

(b)       Sindhi

(c)        Sanskrit

(d)       Kashmiri

Ans: (a)

34.       In which one of the following does the subject of Co-operative Societies fall ?

(a)        Union List

(b)       State List

(c)        Concurrent List

(d)       Residuary Powers Government

Ans: (c)

35.       With what subject do the Articles 5 to 8 of the Constitution of India deal?

(a)        Details of Indian Union and its territory

(b)       Citizenship

(c)        Fundamental Duties

(d)       Union Executive

Ans: (b)

 

 

36.       The mapping of which of the following is most difficult ?

(a)        Mountains

(b)       Plateaus and Plains

(c)        Interior of the Earth

(d)       Oceans and their depth

Ans: (c)

37.       Tides in the sea have stored in them:

(a)        hydraulic energy

(b)       kinetic energy

(c)        gravitational potential energy

(d)       a combination of all the above three forms of energy

Ans: (d)

38.       In the earliest days when life originated on earth, the atmosphere contained :

(a)        free oxygen

(b)       no oxygen

(c)        oxygen in fixed form

(d)       oxygen bound to carbon

Ans: (d)

39.       Which one of the following would have occured if the earth had NOT been inclined on its own axis?

(a)        All the seasons would have been of same duration

(b)       The seasons would not have changed

(c)        The summers would have been of longer duration

(d)       The winters would have been of longer duration

Ans: (b)

40.       Latitude of place is indicative of its:

(a)        time

(b)       altitude

(c)        amount of rainfall

(d)       temperature

Ans: (d)

41.       The upper part of the mantle upon which the crust of the Earth floats is called:

(a)        barysphere

(b)       mesophere

(c)        mohorovic discontinuity

(d)       asthenosphere

Ans: (d)

42.       Tides are complied and they vary from place to place because of:

(a)        the movement of Moon in relation to Earth

(b)       Uneven distribution of water over the globe

(c)        irregularities in the configuration of oceans

(d)       all of the above

Ans: (d)

43.       The earth rotates around its axis from:

(a)        north to south

(b)       east to west

(c)        south to north

(d)       west to east

Ans: (d)

44.       The word used to describe the shape of earth is:

(a)        flat

(b)       circle

(c)        sphere

(d)       oblate spheroid

Ans: (d)

45.       The mean radius of the earth is approximately:

(a)        3200 km

(b)       6400 km

(c)        9600 km

(d)       12800 km

Ans: (b)

46.       Summer Solstice in the Southern Hemisphere occurs on :

(a)        December 22

(b)       September 23

(c)        June 21

(d)       March 21

Ans: (a)

47.       One degree of the circumference of the earth measures(approx.) :

(a)        100km

(b)       111km

(c)        151km

(d)       175km

Ans: (b)

48.       Spring tides occur when:

(a)        the moon is nearest to the earth

(b)       the moon is farthest from the earth

(c)        the moon, the sun and the earth are at right angles with the earth at the apex

(d)       the moon, the sun and the earth are in the same line

Ans: (d)

49.       The speed of rotation of the earth is the highest:

(a)        along the Equator

(b)       at the North Pole

(c)        along the Tropic of Cancer

(d)       along the Arctic Circle

Ans: (a)

50.       "Mohs' Scale" is used to indicate the:

(a)        degree of brittleness of a substance

(b)       degree of hardness of minerals.

(c)        degree of viscosity of a liquid

(d)       degree of elasticity of a material

Ans: (b)                                              

51.       If a solar eclipse occurs when the moon is quite far from the earth, the eclipse would be likely to be :

(a)        total

(b)       partial

(c)        annular

(d)       none of these

Ans: (c)

52.       What can be the maximum duration of totality for a solar eclipse?

(a)        12.5 minutes

(b)       7 minutes 40 seconds

(c)        1 hour 40 seconds

(d)       There is no maximum duration

Ans: (b)

53.       The total surface area of earth is :

(a)        510 million sq km

(b)       610 million sq km

(c)        710 million sq km

(d)       810 million sq km

Ans: (a)

54.       What is the approximate equatorial circumference of the earth?

(a)        30,000 Km

(b)       35,000 Km

(c)        40,000 Km

(d)       45,000 Km

Ans: (c)

55.       The approximate diameter of the earth is :

(a)        4,200 Km

(b)       6,400 Km

(c)        12,800 Km

(d)       15,600 Km

Ans: (c)

56.       The place which has the longest day and the shortest night on 22nd December, is :

(a)        Chennai

(b)       Madrid

(c)        Melbourne

(d)       Moscow

Ans: (c)

57.       Geostationary orbit is at a height of:

(a)        6 km

(b)       1000 km

(c)        3600 km

(d)       36,000 km

Ans: (d)

58.       Owing to the equatorial bulge and the polar flattening, the polar radius of the earth falls short of the equatorial radius by about:

(a)        22 km

(b)       36 km

(c)        41 km

(d)       53 km

Ans: (a)

59.       The earth is at the least distance from the sun (Perihelion) on :

(a)        December 22nd

(b)       January 3rd

(c)        July 4th

(d)       June 21st

Ans: (b)

60.The earth is at the largest distance from the sun (Apehelion) on :

(a)        June 21st

(b)       January 3rd

(c)        July 4th

(d)       September 23rd

Ans: (c)

61.       The Earth rotates-around an axis pointing towards:

(a)        the moon

(b)       the pole star

(c)        the sun

(d)       Venus

Ans: (b)

62.       Which part of the earth's surface receives the highest amount of insolation?

(a)        Tropical deserts

(b)       Equatorial region

(c)        Savanna region

(d)       No such criteria

Ans: (a)

63.       Which one of the following cities does not have the same clock time as that of the other three cities at any given instant?

(a)        London (UK)

(b)       Lisbon (Portugal)

(c)        Accra (Ghana)

(d)       Addis Ababa (Ethiopia)

Ans: (d)

64.       Which of the following layers of the earth is believed to have the heaviest mineral materials of highest density ?

(a)        Central core

(b)       Crust

(c)        Mantle

(d)       Both (b) and (c)

Ans: (a)

65.Assume that the moon takes exactly 30 days to complete the cycle and also assume that it rises in the east exactly at 6.48 p.m., on the first day. On the fourth day, at what time will it rise?

(a)        8.24 p.m

(b)       9. 12 p.m

(c)        10.00 p.m

(d)       11.48 p.m.

Ans: (c)

66.       Which one of the following is present in the largest amount in terms of percent by mass in the earth's crust?

(a)        Silicon

(b)       Oxygen

(c)        Carbon

(d)       Calcium

Ans: (b)

67.       Study the following diagram and say which of the given statements is not correct regarding it :

(a)        It shows the earth's orbital position on 21st June

(b)       All parallels in the northern hemisphere have days equal to nights

(c)        There is continuous day north of the Arctic Circle

(d)       South of the equator the length of the day decreases with increasing latitude

Ans: (b)

68.       The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves from:

(a)        west to east

(b)       east and west of the prime meridian

(c)        poles to equator

(d)       equator to poles

Ans: (d

69.       Which of the following statements with regard to the term 'great circle' is not correct?

(a)        Equator is a great circle

(b)       A ship can save fuel and time by following the great circle arc between two points

(c)        Only one great circle can be drawn on a sphere

(d)       A great circle results when a plane passes through the centre of a sphere

Ans: (c)

70.       The term 'syzygy' is referred to when the:

(a)        Earth is at perihelion and moon at perigee

(b)       Earth is at apehelion and moon at apogee

(c)        Moon and sun are at right angles with reference to the earth

(d)       Moon, sun and earth lie along a straight line

Ans: (d)

71.       The sun reaches its maximum angular distance from the equator at the:

(a)        zenith

(b)       solstice

(c)        equinox

(d)       noontime

Ans: (b)

72.       The South Pole experiences continuous light at:

(a)        summer solstice

(b)       winter solstice

(c)        vernal equinox

(d)       no time

Ans: (b)

73.       The shortest day in Australia will be on:

(a)        June 21

(b)       December 22

(c)        September 23

(d)       March 21

Ans: (a)

74.       Which of the following best describes longitude?

(a)        An imaginary line joining north and south poles

(b)       The distance between a place east or west of the Greenwich Meridian

(c)        The angular distance east or west of the Greenwich meridian

(d)       The position of a place on earth's surface with reference to the Prime Meridian

Ans: (c)

75.       The latitude of a place expresses its angular position relative to the place of:

(a)        axis of the earth

(b)       equator

(c)        north pole

(d)       south pole

Ans: (b)

76.       When would you record the maximum angle of incidence of the sun's rays at the north pole

(a)        March 21

(b)       September 21

(c)        When the sun's rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer

(d)       When the sun's rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Capricorn

Ans: (c)

77.       One degree of longitude on the equator is equal to a distance of:

(a)        34.5 miles

(b)       50 miles

(c)        60 miles

(d)       69 miles

Ans: (b)

78.       At the summer solstice, which one of the following latitudes will have the longest night?

(a)        45°N

(b)       45°S

(c)        60°N

(d)       60°S

Ans: (d)

79.       The Tropic of Cancer passes through:

(a)        India and Iran

(b)       Iran and Pakistan

(c)        India and Saudi Arabia

(d)       Iran and Iraq

Ans: (c)

80.       Which of these is the longest?

(a)        0° Meridian

(b)       180° E-W

(c)        90° E

(d)       All are equal

Ans: (d)

81.       The core of the Earth is made up of:

(a)        mainly of iron in the liquid form

(b)       mainly of nickel in the liquid form

(c)        both iron and silica in the liquid form

(d)       both iron and magnesium in the plastic state

Ans: (d)

82.       Which one of the following is not the effect of the revolution of the Earth.

(a)        Change of seasons

(b)       length of days and nights

(c)        Determination of latitudes

(d)       Change in the direction of winds and ocean currents

Ans: (d)

83.       Latitudes include 181 lines while longitudes are 360 lines because:

(a)        longitude is divided from prime meridian while latitude is from equator

(b)       longitude is divided from equator while latitude is from prime meridian

(c)        longitude is a line that connects North Pole to South Pole and latitude is divided from east to west

(d)       None of these

Ans: (a)

84.       Which of the following statements is true?

(a)        Arctic circle, antarctic circle and equator are great circles

(b)       Both equator and longitudes are great circles

(c)        Both latitudes and longitudes are great circles

(d)       Both equator and latitudes are great circles

Ans: (b)

85.       Maximum difference in the spacing of longitudes is :

(a)        at poles

(b)       at equator

(c)        at tropics

(d)       at arctic circle

Ans: (b)

86.       Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in:

            (a)        kilometers from the poles

(b)       kilometers from the equator

(c)        angles from the poles

(d)       angles from the equator

Ans: (d)

87.       Latitude and longitude both:

(a)        pass through poles

(b)       run parallel to the equator

(c)        run parallel to each other

(d)       run perpendicular to each other

Ans: (d)

88.       Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a)        66° 33' N latitude - Arctic Circle

(b)       180°E or 180°W longitude- International Date Line

(c)        23° 20' N latitude - Tropic of Cancer

(d)       0° E or 0°W longitude – Equator

Ans: (d)

89.       The latitude of a place is the same as the:

(a)        maximum altitude attained by the Sun at noon

(b)       altitude of the celestial pole

(c)        angle between the horizon and the equator

(d)       zenith distance of the full moon when on the meridian

Ans: (d)

90.       Of the total volume of the earth, which layer forms the major part ?

(a)        Sial

(b)       Sima

(c)        Mantle

(d)       Core

Ans: (d)

91.       The equatorial circumference is greater than the polar circumference by approximately:

(a)        22 km

(b)       41 km

(c)        125 km

(d)       625 km

Ans: (b)

            92.       The distance of the equator from either of the poles is :

(a)        500 km

(b)       5001 km

(c)        10,002 km

(d)       36,005 km

Ans: (c)

93.       On the 21st June, the day light is seen at the North Pole for:

(a)        zero hrs.

(b)       12 hrs.

(c)        18 hrs.

(d)       24 hrs.

Ans: (d)

94.       The amount of insolation received at a place on the surface of the earth depends on:

(a)        its climate

(b)       its latitude

(c)        its longitude

(d)       Both (a)and (b)

Ans: (d)

95.       If a place is located at 20°N, 80°E in which of the following continents does it lie?

(a)        Africa

(b)       Asia

(c)        Europe

(d)       North America

Ans: (b)

96.       The longest circle which can be drawn on the earth's surface passes through:

(a)        Equator

(b)       Tropic of Cancer

(c)        Arctic Circle

(d)       Tropic of Capricorn

Ans: (a)

97.       Japan is called ‘land of the rising sun’ because:

(a)        Sun rises there as soon as it sets

(b)       Sun always remains in the eastern part of the sky throughout the day in Japan

(c)        Japan being the Eastern most country in the World, it has the earliest sunrise

(d)       The rays of the sun get reflected from the waters of the sea and make the sunrise beautiful in Japan

Ans: (c)

98.       Which of the following phenomenon gives an evidence for the spherical shape of the earth?

(a)        Solar eclipse

(b)       Revolution

(c)        Lunar eclipse

(d)       Rotation of Earth

Ans: (b)

99.       The speed of rotation of the earth is:

(a)        25 km/sec.

(b)       31 km/sec.

(c)        39.5 km/sec.

(d)       9.72 km/sec.

Ans: (d)

100.     The point in the orbit of a moon that is farthest from the Earth and at which the moon's velocity is at a minimum, the known as:

(a)        Apehelion

(b)       Apigee

(c)        Umbra

(d)       Perihelion

Ans: (b)

Try, more than 100 Quiz Questions about the Indian Armed Forces

Topic 4: Indian Politics and Geography GK Quiz Questions

1.         Which of the following is not an effect produced by rotation of earth?

(a)It causes days and nights

(b)       All heavenly bodies like sun, moon, planets appear to move from East to West

(c)        Winds change their directions

(d)       Poles have days and nights of 6 months duration

Ans: (d)

2.         Albedo is defined as:

(a)        UV radiations sent out by the SUN

(b)       a substance contained in the upper atmospheric layers of the earth, which is responsible for the reflection of/a part of solar radiations

(c)        celestial bodies in earth's atmosphere which add to the greenhouse effect

(d)       the amount of insolation reflected back to the space by the top of atmosphere, by clouds and ice-covered areas of the Earth's surface

Ans: (d)

3.         The Sun shines vertically on the equator:

(a)        throughout the year

(b)       for six months

(c)        twice a year

(d)       once a year

Ans: (c)

4.         The position of the sun is annually twice overhead at Singapore because of the:

(a)        rotation of the earth

(b)       revolution of the earth

(c)        elliptical path of the earth's orbit

(d)       parallelism of inclined axis of the earth

Ans: (d)

5.         What is 'Siderial Day'?

(a)        The day on which the duration of sunshine is the maximum

(b)       The day on which the duration of sunshine and darkness are equal

(c)        The time during which the earth makes a complete rotation on its axis in respect of the fixed stars

(d)       The day on which the sun reaches its maximum distance from the equator

Ans: (c)

6.         The distance between the earth and the sun is smallest in the month of:

(a)        January

(b)       March

(c)        June

(d)       September

Ans: (a)

7.         The earth revolves round the sun in its orbit by approximately:

(a)        1° per day

(b)       2° per day

(c)        3° per day

(d)       5° per day

Ans: (a)

8.         There is a continual daylight or summer in the Arctic regions from:

(a)        22nd December to 21st March

(b)       21st March to 21st June

(c)        21st March to 23rd September

(d)       21st June to 22nd December

Ans: (c)

9.         Antipodes are:

(a)        lines joining places having a time difference of 12 hours

(b)       places diametrically opposite on earth's surface

(c)        places located at a point where degree of latitude is equal to degree of longitude

(d)       lines joining places having the same depths

Ans: (b)

10.       Which of the following pairs of metals are supposed to constitute the internal core of the earth?

(a)        Chromium and Iron

(b)       Magnesium and Lead

(c)        Iron and Copper

(d)       Nickel and Iron

Ans: (d)

11.Consider a specific point on the surface of the earth (say Delhi). The temperature at a given time of day (say 12.00 Noon) will in general be higher in summer than in winter. This is because:

(a)        the evaporation of water from atmosphere results in precipitation occurring in winter

alone

(b)       Sun-rays falling on the earth are inclined more towards the sun in winter

(c)        the earth is closer to the sun in summer than in winter

(d)       the axis of the earth is inclined more towards the sun in winter

Ans: (b

12.       Who among the following was first to measure the circumference of the Earth?

(a)        Eratosthenes

(b)       Aristotle

(c)        Hecataeus

(d)       Herodotus

Ans: (a)

13.       Heat received by earth from the Sun is known as:

(a)        insolation

(b)       solar heat

(c)        solar radiation

(d)       thermal radiation

Ans: (a)

14.       Lunar eclipse is caused when the:

(a)        moon comes between the sun and the earth

(b)       earth comes between the sun and the moon

(c)        sun comes between the earth and moon

(d)       none of these

Ans: (b)

15.       Lunar eclipse does not occur every month because:

(a)        the sun's orbit is not always in the same plane as the moon

(b)       the moon revolves at a slower speed than the earth

(c)        the moon's orbit is not all the time in the same plane as the earth

(d)       none of these

Ans: (c)

16.       Lunar eclipse occurs on :

(a)        New moon

(b)       Full moon

(c)        Half moon

(d)       Quarter moon

Ans: (b)

17.       The Solar eclipse achieves totality only in limited geographical regions because:

(a)        the trajectories of the Earth around the Sun and the Moon around the Earth are not perfect circles

(b)       the size of the shadow of the Moon on the Earth is small compared to the cross-section of the Earth

(c)        sun rays can reach most of the peripheral regions of the shadow of the moon due to atmospheric refraction

(d)       the Earth is not a smooth flat surface, but has elevations and depressions

Ans: (b)

18.       Solar eclipse occurs when:

(a)        Earth comes between sun and moon

(b)       Moon is at right angle to the earth

(c)        Moon comes between sun and earth

(d)       Sun comes between moon and earth

Ans: (c)

19.       The position of a planet when it is nearest to the Sun, is called:

(a)        perihelion

(b)       apihelion

(c)        apigee

(d)       perigee

Ans: (a)

20.       The position of the earth in its orbit, when it is at its greatest distance from the Sun causing summer in the Northern hemisphere is :

(a)        Perihelion

(b)       Aplheuon

(c)        Perigee

(d)       Apogee

Ans: (b)

21.       The time of Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich time Cairo is situated at :

(a)        27° East

(b)       28° West

(c)        30° East

(d)       30° West

Ans: (c)

22.       When it is 8 P.M. in Tokyo, what is the time at Panama Canal which is located at 180° W of it

(a)        4.00 P.M.

(b)       8.00 A.M.

(c)        12.00 A.M.

(d)       12.00 Noon

Ans: (b)

23.       Through which one of the following groups of countries does the Equator pass?

(a)        Brazil, Zambia and Malaysia

(b)       Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia

(c)        Brazil, Sudan and Malaysia

(d)       Venezuela, Ethiopia and Indonesia

Ans: (b)

24.       Which one of the following is the time required for the Earth to return to a given point in its orbit with reference to fixed star, called

(a)        Lunar year

(b)       Solar year

(c)        Tropical year

(d)       Sideral year

Ans: (d)

25.       In how many time zones has the world been divided into?

(a)        15

(b)       24

(c)        90

(d)       180

Ans: (b)

26.Why does Russia have many local time differences?

(a)        Because it keeps trade relations with many countries of the world

(b)       Because it experiences a wide range of climatic conditions

(c)        Because of its long east-west stretches

(d)       Because it is divided into a number of states on political grounds

Ans: (c)

27.       Which one of the following elements is most abundant in the earth's crust?

(a)        Oxygen

(b)       Sulphur

(c)        Silicon

(d)       Carbon

Ans: (a)

28.       Through which one of the following countries the Tropic of Cancer does not pass through?

(a)        Bangladesh

(b)       China

(c)        Myanmar

(d)       Nepal

Ans: (d)

29.       All the watches of a country are set according to :

(a)        local time

(b)       standard time of the country

(c)        greenwich mean time

(d)       time of sunrise and sunset

Ans: (b)

30.       If it is 4 P.M. on Monday at 150°W, what will be the time at 150°E ?

(a)        4 a.m. on Tuesday

(b)       4 p.m. on Tuesday

(c)        4 p.m. on Sunday

(d)       12 Noon on Tuesday

Ans: (d)

31.       When it is 12.00 noon at Delhi (77° 10'E), people at another place on earth take their 6 o'clock morning tea. The longitude of that place is:

(a)        17°30' E

(b)       12°50' W

(c)        172°30' E

(d)       17°E

Ans: (b)

32.       When it is 12:00 noon in India, the time in San Francisco (USA) would be closed to :

(a)        11 : 30 p.m.

(b)       11 : 30 p.m. of previous day

(c)        8 : 30 p.m.

(d)       8 : 30 p. m. of previous day

Ans: (d)

33.       Beirut time is two hours ahead and Lima time is five hours behind GMT. The longitudes of Beirut and Lima are respectively:

(a)        75° West and 30° East

(b)       70° East and 35° West

(c)        30° East and 75° West

(d)       35° West and 70° East

Ans: (c)

34.       When the clock strikes 12:00 noon at Greenwich, it strikes 5:30 p.m. at place X on the same day. What is the meridian of longitude of place X ?

(a)        97°30' E

(b)       97°30' W

(c)        82°30' E

(d)       82°30' W

Ans: (c)

35.       When it is nine o'clock in London, it will be the same time in :

(a)        Ghana

(b)       Babon

(c)        Latvia

(d)       Norway

Ans: (a)

36.       The location of a place A is at 60° E longitude and 30° S latitude while the location of B is at 60° E longitude and 45° N latitude. Time at B will be :

(a)        half an hour behind A

(b)       half an hour ahead of A

(c)        half an hour ahead or behind that of A

(d)       the same as that of A

Ans: (d)

37.       The International Dateline deflects to a side to avoid:

(a)        Society islands

(b)       Hawaii

(c)        Aleutian Islands

(d)       All the above

Ans: (c)

38.       A person sets off from Alaska on a Tuesday and reaches New Zealand the next day which will be :

(a)        Tuesday

(b)       Wednesday

(c)        Thursday

(d)       Friday

Ans: (c)

39.       If the earth's direction of rotation is reversed, what would be the IST when it is noon at the International Date Line?

(a)        06.30 hrs

(b)       05.30 hrs

(c)        18.30 hrs

(d)       17.30 hrs

Ans: (c)

40.       Sea tides show variations because of:

(a)        variations in gravitational pull of the moon

(b)       variations in gravitational pull of the sun

(c)        distorted spherical shape of the earth

(d)       different phases of the moon

Ans: (d)

41.       One day in Mumbai a tide occurs at 8.00 A.M. The next day it will occur at :

(a)        8.13 A.M.

(b)       8.26 A.M.

(c)        8.52 A.M.

(d)       8.56 A.M.

Ans: (b)

42.       Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given Continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth's land?

(a)        North America – Africa – South America – Europe

(b)       Africa – North America – South America – Europe

(c)        North America – Africa – Europe – South America

(d)       Africa – North America – Europe – South America

Ans: (b)

43.       Which one of the following has geographical position of 0 degree latitude and 0 degree longitude?

(a)        In the South Atlantic Ocean

(b)       In the Mediterranean Sea

(c)        In Ghana, a West African-country

(d)       At Greenwich Observatory in England

Ans: (a)

44.       The antipodal position of a place located at 35° south and 80° west is

(a)        55° north and 80° east

(b)       35° north and 100° east

(c)        100°north and 80° east

(d)       55° south and 10° east

Ans: (b)

45.       If news is broadcast from London at 10:30 AM, at what time it will be heard at Baghdad (45°E)?

(a)        7:30 AM

(b)       9:00 AM

(c)        1:30 PM

(d)       12:00 Noon

Ans: (c)

45.The distance between two consecutive longitudes (91° E and 92° E) at the Pole

(a)        0 km

(b)       18 km

(c)        25 km

(d)       111 km

Ans: (a)

46.       How many kilometres are represented by 1° of latitude?

(a)        321 km

(b)       211 km

(c)        111 km

(d)       91 km

Ans: (c)

47.       The approximate circumference of the Earth is

(a)        13,000 km

(b)       20,000 km

(c)        25,000 km

(d)       30,000 km

Ans: (d

48.       The seasonal contrasts are maximum in:

(a)        low latitudes

(b)       mid-latitudes

(c)        sub tropics

(d)       high latitudes

Ans: (b)

49.       Which of the following is the best definition of 'Tides' ?

(a)        A powerful movement of the ocean which proceed constantly in a definite direction

(b)       A great circulatory movement of sea water caused by difference in density of sea water

(c)        A periodic rise and fall of sea water caused by the gravitational force of moon and sun on earth

(d)       A wind and pressure system having a low pressure in centre and circular wind motion

Ans: (c)

50.       The heavier silicates named 'Sima’ or silica + magnesium are most abundant in the:

(a)        crust

(b)       core

(c)        mantle

(d)       ocean floors

Ans: (a)

51.       Insolation heats up the land masses more quickly than the water bodies because:

(a)        water is liquid

(b)       landmasses are solid

(c)        water needs more energy to get warm

(d)       rocks are bad conductors of heat

Ans: (c)

52.       The earth's annual circuit round the sun covers a distance of:

(a)        1,096 million kms

(b)       1,036 million kms

(c)        966 million kms

(d)       896 million kms

Ans: (c)

53.       It is six months long day in the northern polar region and six months long night in the southern polar region because:

(a)        earth is revolving around the sun

(b)       earth is inclined towards its orbital plane

(c)        earth is rotating

(d)       none of these

Ans: (b)

54.       The surface of Earth that lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is called:

(a)        North Temperate Zone

(b)       Frigid Zone

(c)        South Temperate Zone

(d)       Torrid Zone

Ans: (d)

55.       Choose the incorrect statement;

(a)        All meridians are of the same length

(b)       The axis of the earth is inclined at an angle of           to the horizontal

(c)        The Sun's rays are vertical at all places on the days of the equinoxes

(d)       The summer solstice for the Southern Hemisphere is in December

Ans: (c)

56.       The largest amount of reflection of the solar radiant energy which is reflected back into space before reaching the earth's surface is due to:

(a)        clouds

(b)       water-bodies

(c)        snow and ice covered areas of the earth

(d)       all the above reflect nearly the same amount

Ans: (a)

57.       What percentage of insolation is received by the earth's surface?

(a)        47%

(b)       51%

(c)        66%

(d)       87%

Ans: (a)

58.       The incoming short-wave solar radiation is balanced by an equal amount of long-wave radiation from earth going back to space. This is known as:

(a)        earth radiation

(b)       wave balance of earth

(c)        heat balance of earth

(d)       radiation exchange

Ans: (c)

59.       The latitude of a place expresses its angular position relative to the plane of

(a)        axis of the Earth

(b)       equator

(c)        North pole

(d)       South pole

Ans: (b)

60.       At 12 noon of December 21, you observe that you cast no shadow as you stand in bright sunlight. So you must be, somewhere near:

(a)        the Arctic Circle

(b)       the Tropic of Cancer

(c)        the Tropic of Capricorn

(d)       the South Pole

Ans: (c)

61.       The Gutenberg discontinuity is between:

(a)        the crust and the mantle

(b)       the upper and lower mantles

(c)        the outer core and the lower mantle

(d)       the inner and outer cores

Ans: (c)

62.       The Tropic of Cancer does NOT pass through:

(a)        Egypt

(b)       Mexico

(c)        Oman

(d)       Yeme

Ans: (d)

63.       Which one of the following minerals occurs abundantly in the Earth's crust?

(a)        Bauxite

(b)       Silica

(c)        Manganese

(d)       Iron

Ans: (b)

64.       The axis of rotation of earth is tilted by 23.5° to the plane of revolution around the sun. The latitude of Mumbai is less than 23.5° whereas the latitude of Delhi is more than 23.5°. Which one of the following statements in this regard is correct?

(a)        The sun can come overhead at both these places

(b)       The sun will never come overhead at either of these places

(c)        At Mumbai the sun can come overhead, but it will never do so at Delhi

(d)       At Delhi the sun can come overhead but it will never do so at Mumbai

Ans: (c)

65.       Why are winters more severe in Southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere?

(a)        Earth is tilted towards the Sun in the Northern Hemisphere

(b)       Northern Hemisphere receives more sunlight

(c)        Because of more iceberg activity in Southern Hemisphere

(d)       Southern Hemisphere is less inhabited

Ans: (c)

66.       The tide at its maximum height is known as:

(a)        Equinox

(b)       Neap tide

(c)        Spring tide

(d)       Tsunami

Ans: (c)

67.       ‘Green House Effect’ means:

(a)        pollution in houses in tropical regions

(b)       trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric oxygen

(c)        trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric carbon dioxide

(d)       cultivation in green houses so as to check pollution

Ans: (c)

68.       The International Date Line passes through:

(a)Bering strait

(b)       Gibraltar strait

(c)        Florida strait

(d)       Malacca strait

Ans: (a)

69.       The International Date Line makes slight deviation from 180° meridian so that it

(a)        divides the land masses under the same administration

(b)       does not divide the Bering strait

(c)        does not divide a group of islands under the same administration

(d)       divides the Pacific Ocean into two equal halves

Ans: (c)

70.       When a ship crosses Date line from west to east:

(a)        it loses one day

(b)       it gains one day

(c)        it loses half a day

(d)       it gains half a day

Ans: (b)

71.       If there are four places on the same meridian 500km apart and the local time at one place is 12.00 noon, what will be the time at the three other places?

(a)        12.00noon

(b)       1.00pm

(c)        2.00pm

(d)       Different time at different places

Ans: (a)

72.       If the difference in time between, two places were 2 hours and 20 minutes, then the difference in their longitudes would be:

(a)        30°

(b)       35°

(c)        40°

(d)       45°

Ans: (b)

73.       The Earth turns through 360° in 24 hours. Each 15° longitude represents:

(a)        Half an hour

(b)       Forty five minutes

(c)        One hour

(d)       One hour fifteen minutes

Ans: (c)

74.       On Monday, the 14th June, a man crosses the International Date Line at 5 p.m. from the Asian side to the American side. Which of the following will he now assume to be the correct date and time?

(a)        5 a.m. of Tuesday, the 15th June

(b)       5 p.m. of Tuesday, the 15th June

(c)        5 a.m. of Monday, the 14th June

(d)       5 p.m. of Sunday, the 13th June

Ans: (d)

75.       When it is noon along 82° 30' longitude, along what degree of longitude it will be 6.30 a.m.?

(a)        Along 165° E

(b)       Along 67° 30' W

(c)        0° E or W

(d)       Along 82° 31' W

Ans: (c)

76.  A radio broadcast from Delhi on Monday at 7.30 p.m. is heard at New York on:

(a)        Tuesday at 8.35 p.m.

(b)       the same day at 7.30 p.m.

(c)        the same day at 7:30 a.m.

(d)       Sunday at 8.35 p.m.

Ans: (c)

77.       If a traveller going from Vancouver to Tokyo crosses the International Date Line on Saturday, what will be the day for him at Tokyo?

(a)        Friday

(b)       Saturday

(c)        Sunday

(d)       Monday

Ans: (c)

78.       A one-day Cricket match between India and England starts at 10.00 A.M. in London. The direct telecast of the match will begin in India at:

(a)        3.30 A.M.

(b)       8.30 A.M.

(c)        3.30 P.M.

(d)       8.30 P.M.

Ans: (c)

79.An aeroplane takes off from 30° N latitude, 50° E longitude and lands at the opposite end of the earth. Where does it land?

(a)        30° N Lat., 50° W Long

(b)       30° S Lat., 50° W long

(c)        50° N Lat., 30° W Long

(d)       30° N Lat., 130°W long

Ans: (d)

80.       When it is 12 noon at Greenwich, what is the time at New York (74° W)?

(a)        4.56 p.m.

(b)       4.56 a.m.

(c)        7.04 p.m.

(d)       7.04 a.m.

Ans: (d)

81.       Under which Article of the Constitution is the President's rule promulgated on any State in India?

(a)        356

(b)       352

(c)        360

(d)       370

Ans: (a)

82.       A proclamation of emergency issued under Article 352 must be approved by the Parliament within

(a)        1 month

(b)       6 weeks

(c)        2 months

(d)       4 months

Ans: (a)

83.       The President's rule can be proclaimed in a State:

(a)        when a bill introduced by the State Government in the State Legislature is defeated

(b)       if the President, on receipt of report from the Governor of the State is satisfied that a situation is likely to arise in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution

(c)        if the President, on receipt of a report from the Governor of the State, or otherwise, is satisfied that a situation has arisen in which the Government of the State cannot be carried on in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution

(d)       when the Governor and the Chief Minister of a State differ on many matters

Ans: (c)

84.       The Governor recommends to the President of India that breakdown of Constitutional machinery in the State is imminent. The President makes a proclamation under Article

356 The action of the President:

(a)        cannot be reviewed as the President is the sole judge of his emergency powers

(b)       cannot be reviewed as the Constitution bars the courts from reviewing political actions

(c)        can be reviewed as it goes against Fundamental Rights

(d)       can be reviewed as it is malafide

Ans: (d)

85.       Proclamation of emergency under Article 352, when Lok Sabha stands dissolved, has to be approved by :

(a)        Rajya Sabha and then will continue till the reconstitution of new Lok Sabha which must approve it within 30 days of its first sitting

(b)       New Lok Sabha within 6 months of its Constitution

(c)        Lok Sabha in next session after six months

(d)       Rajya Sabha only

Ans: (a)

86.       The rule of passing resolution by 2/3rd majority of total number of members of the House of Parliament is applicable in the case of:

(a)        amendment of the Constitution

(b)       approval of proclamation of emergency

(c)        impeachment of President

(d)       disapproval of proclamation of emergency

Ans: (c)

87.       After approval by' both Houses of Parliament, the proclamation of emergency issued by the President shall be valid:

(a)        for period of six months

(b)       for an indefinite period unless revoked by the subsequent proclamation

(c)        for an indefinite period if both Houses of Parliament approves the proclamation after every six months

(d)       for further period of two months only

Ans: (c)    

88.       Every proclamation issued under Article 356 shall cease to operate at the expiration of:

(a)        one month unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament

(b)       two months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament

(c)        six months unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament

(d)       three years unless before that period it has been approved by resolution of both Houses of Parliament

Ans: (b)

89.       While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country, the State Government:

(a)        cannot legislate

(b)       can legislate only on subjects in the Concurrent List

(c)        can legislate on the subject in the State List

(d)       is suspended

Ans: (a)

90.       While a proclamation of emergency is in operation in the country under Article 352:

(a)        the Parliament is empowered under Article 250 to legislate with respect to any matter in the State List

(b)       the power of the State Legislature to make a law which is entitled to make a law under the Constitution is suspended

(c)        a law passed by the Parliament may be amended by a State Legislature with prior permission of the President

(d)       Parliament can delegate some of its powers to the State Legislatures

Ans: (a)

91.       Which is not a correct statement regarding financial emergency?

(a)        President can ask States to follow a certain canon of financial propriety

(b)       The States may be asked to reserve the money bills for the consideration of the President

(c)        President can suspend the normal allocation of revenues

(d)       President can reduce the salaries of civil servants and not judges

Ans: (c)

92.       According to Article 164(1) of the Constitution of India, in three States there shall be a Minister in charge of tribal welfare who may in addition be in charge of the welfare of the Scheduled Castes and Backward Classes. Which one of the following States is not covered by the Article?

(a)        Jharkhand

(b)       Punjab

(c)        Madhya Pradesh

(d)       Orissa

Ans: (b)

93.       Which Article of Indian Constitution prescribes Hindi in Devanagari script as the official language of the Union?

(a)        341

(b)       342

(c)        343

(d)       346

Ans: (c)

94.       Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution guarantees equal opportunities in public employment to persons belonging to SC/ST and the other minority communities?

(a)     Article 15

(b)       Article 16

(c)        Article 22

(d)       Article 27

Ans: (b)

95.       Provisions of the Constitution relating to the administration of scheduled areas and tribes in Schedule V

(a)        may be altered by the Governor

(b)       may be altered by Parliament by amendment requiring two-thirds majority

(c)        cannot be altered

(d)       may be altered by Parliament by ordinary legislation

Ans: (d

96.       Provisions of having a UPSC and Public Service Commision for States are enshrined in

(a)        Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-324

(b)       Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-324

(c)        Part XIV, Chapter II, Articles 315-323

(d)       Part XIV, Chapter I, Articles 308-318

Ans: (b)

97.       Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of the executive power of the Union?

(a)        Article 257

(b)       Article 258

(c)        Article 355

(d)       Article 356

Ans: (a)

98.Article 340 of the Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Commission to investigate the conditions for the improvement of:

(a)        Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

(b)       Socially and educationally backward classes

(c)        Socially and economically backward classes

(d)       Educationally and economically backward classes

Ans: (a)

99.       National Emergency has been declared so far:

(a)        once

(b)       twice

(c)        thrice

(d)       four times

Ans: (c)

100.     The provision for Contingency Fund of India as well as for each State has been made under:

(a)        Article 267

(b)       Article 270

(c)        Parliamentary Legislation

(d)       Presidential order

Ans: (a)

Feeling Patriotic? try our Quiz Questions around Independence Day

Topic 5: Indian Polity GK Quiz Questions

1.         When a financial emergency is proclaimed: [I. Tax 1994]

(a)        repayment of government debts will stop

(b)       payment of salaries to public servants will be postponed

(c)        salaries and allowances of any class of employees may be reduced

(d)       Union Budget will not be presented

Ans: (b)

2.         On the basis of financial crisis Emergency has been declared by the President of India:

(a)        not even once

(b)       in 1962

(c)        in 1971

(d)       in 1991

Ans: (a)

3.         While a proclamation of emergency is in operation the duration of the Lok Sabha can be extended for a period

(a)        not exceeding three months

(b)       not exceeding nine months

(c)        of one year at a time

(d)       of two years at time

Ans: (c)

4.         The proclamation of emergency at the first instance can be restricted to:

(a)        3 months

(b)       15 days

(c)        6 months

(d)       60 days

Ans: (c)

5.         Every proclamation issued under Article 352 shall be :

(a)        laid before each House of the Parliament

(b)       laid before the Lok Sabha

(c)        decided by the Prime Minister and conveyed to the President

(d)       All of the above

Ans: (c)

6.         The President's rule is imposed for the period of:

(a)        3 months

(b)       6 months

(c)        till the next election is held

(d)       it depends upon the President's wish

Ans: (b)

7.         The duration of proclamation of Financial Emergency is :

(a)        at the first instance one month

(b)       at the first instance two months

(c)        at the first instance six months

(d)       at the first instance one year

Ans: (b)

8.         During the proclamation of National Emergency:

(a)        all Fundamental Rights are suspended

(b)       Articles 20 and 21 cannot be suspended

(c)        Article 32 cannot be suspended

(d)       Article 19 cannot be suspended

Ans: (b)

9.         Emergency can be proclaimed:

(a)        in whole of the country

(b)       only in that part of country where actual aggression has taken place

(c)        in any part of the country

(d)       in the entire country or any part of territory of India

Ans: (d)

10.       A resolution for the revocation of proclamation of National Emergency may be moved by:

(a)        ten members of Rajya Sabha

(b)       ten members of Lok Sabha

(c)        ten members of Parliament

(d)       one-tenth of total membership of Lok Sabha

Ans: (d)

11.       A resolution ratifying the proclamation of National Emergency requires to be passed:

(a)        by Parliament

(b)       by each House of Parliament

(c)        by both the Houses of Parliament in a joint sitting

(d)       by each House of Parliament in separate sittings with majority of total membership of each House and by majority of not less than 2/3rd of members present and voting

Ans: (b)

12.       The President can issue proclamation of emergency:

(a)        on the advice of Prime Minister

(b)       on the advice of Council of Ministers

(c)        in his own decision

(d)       when the decision of Union Cabinet for the issuance of such proclamation has been communicated to him in writing

Ans: (d)

13.       In case of proclamation of emergency on grounds of war or external aggression:

(a)        all Fundamental Rights will be automatically suspended

(b)       the right to move a court for enforcement of any Fundamental Right is suspended

(c)        the President may order the suspension of enforcement of any Fundamental Right except Article 20-21

(d)       Parliament may authorise suspension of all Fundamental Rights

Ans: (c)

14.       In the election of the President, the value of the vote of the Lok Sabha members:

(a)        is same

(b)       differs according to the geographical size of the respective State

(c)        differs according to the number of votes a member represents

(d)       None of the above

Ans: (c)

15.       The President of India is:

(a)        Commander-in-Chief of Defence Forces

(b)       Supreme Commander of Armed Forces

(c)        Head of the Government

(d)       Supreme Commander of Defence Forces of the Union and Executive Head of the Union

Ans: (d)

16.       The President can be removed by the way of impeachment which can be made only:

(a)        by the Supreme Court

(b)       by the Rajya Sabha

(c)        by the Members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha through impeachment

(d)       cannot be impeached

Ans: (c)

17.       Which of the following statements is correct ?

(a)        The President may continue to be a member of Parliament even after assuming charge of the Presidential office

(b)       The President is not barred from holding any other office of profit even after assuming

charge of Presidential office

(c)        The President is entitled to use his official residence only on payment of rent fixed

(d)       The emolument and allowances of the President shall not be diminished during his term of office

Ans: (c)

18.       In the election of the President, each Member of the electoral college has:

(a)        one vote

(b)       as many votes as there are candidates

(c)        one vote with value attached to it

(d)       one vote with value attached to it and he can give as many preferences as there are candidates

Ans: (d)

19.       The value of a vote of a Member of Parliament for the election of the President is determined by dividing the:

(a)        nation's population as per the latest census by the number of Lok Sabha members

(b)       nation's population as per the latest census by the total strength of the two Houses of Paliament

(c)        the total value of votes of members of all the State Legislative Assemblies by the elected Members of the two Houses of Parliament

(d)       particular State's population as per the latest census by the number of Members of Parliament elected from that State

Ans: (c)

20.       Who administers the oath of office to the President?

(a)        Chief Justice of India

(b)       Speaker of Lok Sabha

(c)        Prime Minister

(d)       Vice-President

Ans: (a)

21.       An individual who is not a member of either House of Parliament can be appointed a member of the Council of Ministers, but he has to become a member of either House within a period of

(a)        1 month

(b)       2 months

(c)        3 months

(d)       6 months

Ans: (d)

22.       Which one of the following does not constitute the electoral college for electing the President of India?

(a)        Elected members of Rajya Sabha

(b)       Elected members of Lok Sabha

(c)        Elected members of the Legislative Assembly of each State

(d)       Elected members of the Legislative Council

Ans: (d)

23.       Who among the following enjoys the rank of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union?

(a)        Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha

(b)       Deputy Chairman of the Planning Commission

(c)        Secretary to the Government of India

(d)       None of the above

Ans: (b)

24.       The Chief Minister of Union Territory where such a set up exists, is appointed by the:

(a)        President

(b)       Prime Minister

(c)        Lt. Governor

(d)       Majority party in Legislature

Ans: (c)

25.       The five year term of the President is calculated from the:

(a)        first day of the month he assumes charge

(b)       first day of the month following the month he assumes charge

(c)        day he assumes charge

(d)       date of his election result

Ans: (c)

26.       If the President wants to resign from office, he may do so by writing to the:

(a)        Vice-President

(b)       Chief Justice of India

(c)        Prime Minister

(d)       Speaker of Lok Sabha

Ans: (a)

27.       In which of the following situations does the President act in his own discretion?

(a)        In appointing the Prime Minister

(b)       In returning a proposal to the Council of Ministers for reconsideration

(c)        Both of the above

(d)       None of the above

Ans: (b)

28.  The minimum age required for becoming the Prime Minister of India is :

(a)        25 years

(b)       30 years

(c)        40 years

(d)       35 years

Ans: (a)

29.       Which of the following regarding the election of the President is correct?

(a)        A candidate securing the majority of votes is not automatically elected

(b)       The Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in any doubt or dispute arising in connection with the election of the President

(c)        The Presidential election cannot take place when one or more State Assemblies stand dissolved because all the State Assemblies form part of the Electoral College

(d)       The total value of the votes allotted to both Houses of Parliament is much more than the total value of the votes of all the States taken together

Ans: (a)

30.       Which of the following is not true regarding the payment of the emoluments to the President?

(a)        They do not require any parliamentary sanction

(b)       They can be reduced during a Financial Emergency

(c)        They are shown separately in the budget

(d)       They are charged on the Contingency Fund of India

Ans: (d)

31.       Which of the following appointments is not made by the President of India?

(a)        Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(b)       Chief Justice of India

(c)        Chief of the Air Force

(d)       Chief of the Army

Ans: (a)

32.       Which one of the following statements is most appropriate?

(a)        The President shall be bound by the advice of the Prime Minister

(b)       The President shall be bound by the advice given by the Council of Ministers

(c)        The President shall act on the advice of the Prime Minister who shall tender such advice in consultation with his cabinet

(d)       The President shall act in accordance with the advice of the Council of Ministers and he may return such advice for reconsideration

Ans: (b)

33.       The Constitution guarantees the following privileges to the President of India:

(a)        No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the President in any court during his term of office

(b)       No process for the arrest or impeachment of the President shall be issued from any court during his term of office

(c)        The President shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in exercise of those powers and duties

(d)       No civil proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted against the President in any court during the term of his office

Ans: (d)

34.       The power to grant pardons, reprieve or remissions of punishment under Article 72 is exercised by the President of India:

(a)        on the advice of the Prime Minister

(b)       on his own as Head of the Union

(c)        on the advice of Council of Ministers

(d)       in consultation with the Prime Minister who tenders his opinion on the advice of his cabinet

Ans: (c)

35.       The pardoning power given to the President of India under Article 72 can be exercised:

(a)        only after the trial and on the sentence of conviction

(b)       during or after trial but never before trial

(c)        at any time before, during or after the trial

(d)       either before or after the trial but never during the trial of the case

Ans: (c)

36.       The only President of India who was elected unopposed is :

(a)        Dr. S. Radhakrishnan

(b)       Dr. Zakir Hussain

(c)        Neelam Sanjiva Reddy

(d)       Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed

Ans: (c)

37.       To elect the President of India, which one of the following election procedures is used?

(a)        System of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote

(b)       Proportional representation through list system

(c)        Collective voting system

(d)       Secondary voting system

Ans: (a)

38.       The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to the

(a)        Hindu Code Bill

(b)       PEPSU Appropriation Bill

(c)        Indian Post Office (Amendment Bill)

(d)       Dowry Prohibition Bill

Ans: (c)

39.       If the President returns a Bill sent to him for his assent and the Parliament once again passes the Bill in Its original form, then the President:

(a)        can once again return the Bill for further reconsideration

(b)       can ask for a referendum on the Bill

(c)        has to give assent to the Bill

(d)       can seek the opinion of the Supreme Court on the bill

Ans: (c)

40.       Which of the following is not true regarding the election of the President?

(a)        The voting power of an MLA is made proportionate to the population he represents

(b)       Voting power of the elected members of the Parliament is made equal to the voting power of all elected members of the Legislative Assemblies

(c)        Voting power of the elected members of Parliament is determined by dividing the total voting power of the State by the number of elected members of the Parliament

(d)       The voting power of an elected member of State Legislative Assembly is determined by dividing the total population of the State by the total number of members of Vidhan Sabha and further dividing the quotient obtained by 1000

Ans: (d)

41.       Which of the following is not correct?

(a)        The Supreme Command of the Defence Forces is vested. in the President

(b)       The three Chiefs of Staff (Army, Navy and Air Force) are under the direct control of the President

(c)        The resoonsibility of National Defence rests with the Union Cabinet

(d)       All important questions having a bearing on defence are decided by the Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs under the Chairmanship of the Prime Minister

Ans: (b)

42.       Who acts as the President of India when neither the President nor the Vice-President is available?

(a)        Speakerof Lok Sabha

(b)       Chief Justice of India

(c)        Auditor General of India

(d)       Senior most Governor of a State

Ans: (b)

43.       An ordinance promulagated by the President:

(a)        will lapse automatically after 2months

(b)       will lapse on the expiration of 6 weeks from the meeting of the Parliament

(c)        will automatically become a law after 6 months

(d)       will continue to be in force till it is superseded by an Act of the Parliament

Ans: (b)

44.       Appointment of the members of the Council of Ministers is made by the President:

(a)        on the advice of the Prime Minister

(b)       in his own discretion

(c)        on the advice of the Vice- President

(d)       on the basis of election results

Ans: (a)

45.       When the Vice-President officiates as President, he draws the salary of:

(a)        President

(b)       Member of Parliament

(c)        Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(d)       Both (a) and (c)

Ans: (a)

46.       Which of the following is correct ?

(a)        If both the President and Vice-President resign, the Speaker of the Lok Sabha will act as President till a new President is elected

(b)       The Constitution of India prescribes both the minimum and maximum age limits for contesting the Presidential election

(c)        In the event of resignation of the President, the Vice-President will act as President for the residual period of the President's tenure

(d)       In India, the President is part of the Parliament

Ans: (d)

47.       The position of the Vice-President of India resembles, to a great extent, the position of the Vice-President of:

(a)        USA

(b)       Russia

(c)        Italy

(d)       New Zealand

Ans: (a)

48.       The Vice-President's letter of resignation is to be addressed to the:

(a)        Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(b)       Chief Justice of India

(c)        President

(d)       Speaker

Ans: (c)

49.       The candidate for Vice-Presidential election must possess the qualifications prescribed for the Presidential candidate except that ne must be :

(a)        a citizen of India

(b)       over 35 years of age

(c)        holding no office of profit under the Government

(d)       qualified to be a member of the Rajya Sabha

Ans: (d)

49.       Who has the authority to remove the Vice-President from his office before the expiry of his term?

(a)        Rajya Sabha

(b)       Parliament

(c)        Lok Sabha

(d)       Supreme Court

Ans: (c)

50.       Which one of the following resigned as Vice-President to contest for the office of the President?

(a)        Dr. S.Radhakrishnan

(b)       V.V. Giri

(c)        Fakhruddin AIi Ahmed

(d)       Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy

Ans: (b)

51.       When the Chairman of Rajya Sabha acts as President, the duties of the Chairman are performed by

(a)        himself

(b)       a newly elected Chairman

(c)        the Deputy Chairman

(d)       a member of Rajya Sabha deputed by the Chairman

Ans: (c)

52.       Disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President are settled:

(a)        in the Supreme Court

(b)       by the Election Commission

(c)        by a Parliamentary Committee

(d)       in the Supreme Court of High Courts

Ans: (a)

53.       What function is specifically prescribed by the Constitution for the Vice-President of India?

(a)        Vice-Chancellorship of Universities

(b)       Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(c)        To assist the President in times of Emergency

(d)       None of the above is correct

Ans: (b)

54.  When the Vice-President acts as President he gets the emoluments of the :

(a)        President

(b)       Vice-President

(c)        Chairman of Rajya Sabha

(d)       President in addition to what he gets as Chairman of Rajya Sabha

Ans: (a

55.       An election to fill a vacancy in the office of Vice-President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, has to be held:

(a)        within six months of the occurrence of the vacancy

(b)       within a year of the occurrence of the vacancy

(c)        as soon as possible after the occurrence of the vacancy

(d)       after the expiration of the term if the remaining period is less than three months

Ans: (c)

56.       Who elects the Vice-President?

(a)        The same electoral college which elects the President

(b)       Members of the Rajya Sabha

(c)        An electoral college consisting of members of Parliament

(d)       Members of Parliament at a joint Meeting

Ans: (c)

57.       The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the:

(a)        Lok Sabha alone

(b)       either House of Parliament

(c)        Joint Sitting of Parliament

(d)       Rajya Sabha alone

Ans: (d)

58.  If a resolution impeaching the President is passed, the President is considered to have

been removed:

(a)        from the date on which the resolution is passed

(b)       once the Chief Justice of India takes out an order to the effect

(c)        as soon as the Gazette of India notifies it

(d)       once the new incumbent is elected

Ans: (a)

59.       A resolution for impeaching the President can be moved after at least fourteen days' notice signed by :

(a)        not less than 50 members of the House

(b)       not less than one-third of the total number of members of the House

(c)        not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of the House

(d)       at least 100 members of Lok Sabha and 50 members of Rajya Sabha

Ans: (c)

60.       The Constitution:

(a)        is silent on the President's re-election to the office

(b)       allows re-election of a person to the President's post

(c)        restricts a person to remain President for only two terms

(d)       has been amended to allow a person only one term as President

Ans: (b)

61.       The executive authority of the Union is vested by the Constitution in the:

(a)        Prime Minister

(b)       President

(c)        Cabinet

(d)       Union Legislature

Ans: (b)

62.       The legislative powers of the President include all the following but:

(a)        the power-to summon or prorogue the Houses of Parliament

(b)       the power to summon a joint sitting of the Houses to resolve a deadlock

(c)        the power of nominating 12 members to the Lok Sabha

(d)       the right to address either House at any time and it requires the attendance of members for this purpose

Ans: (c)

 

63.       Which of the following Chief Justices of India has acted as President of India?

(a)        M. Hidayatullah

(b)       P.B. Gajendra Gadkar

(c)        P.N. Bhagwati

(d)       All of the above

Ans: (a)

64.       When charge against the President is preferred by either' House of Parliament and is being investigated by other House:

(a)        the President has a right to appear and to be represented at such investigation

(b)       the President has no right to appear and to be represented at such investigation

(c)        the President has a right of representation but he does not have a right of personal hearing

(d)       the President has a right to appear and to be represented either personally or through a legal practitioner

Ans: (d)

65.       The President of India is vested with ordinance making power by Article 126, He exercises this power:

(a)        when Lok Sabha is not in session and circumstances .exist which render it necessary for the President to take immediate action

(b)       when Council of States is not in session and the President is satisfied that circumstances exist which render it necessary for him to take immediate action

(c)        when both Houses of Parliament are not in session and President is satisfied that circumstances exist which made it necessary for him to take the immediate action

(d)       in all the above circumstances

Ans: (c)

66.       Who was the member of the Rajya Sabha when first appointed as the Prime Minister of India ?

(a)        Lal Bahadur Shastri

(b)       Indira Gandhi

(c)        Morarji Desai

(d)       Charan Singh

Ans: (b)

67.  Which one of the following statements is correct?

The Speaker of Lok Sabha can be removed by a resolution passed by:

(a)        a majority of all the then members of Lok Sabha

(b)       a majority of the then members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

(c)        two-thirds majority of the total members of the Lok Sabha

(d)       two-thirds majority of the Lok Sabha members present and voting

Ans: (a)

68.       Who among the following Indian Prime Ministers could not vote for himself during the 'Vote of Confidence' that he was seeking from the Lok Sabha?

(a)        VP Singh

(b)       PV Narasimha Rao

(c)        Chandra Shekhar

(d)       Manmohan Singh

Ans: (d)

69.       Which one among the following features of the Constitution of India is indicative of the fact that the real executive power is vested in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister?

(a)        Federalism

(b)       Representative Legislature

(c)        Universal Adult Franchise

(d)       Parliamentary Democracy

Ans: (b)

70.       Which one among the following" is the basis of difference between the Parliamentary and Presidential system of government?

(a)        Power of Judicial review

(b)       Method of election of President/Head of the State

(c)        Legislative supremacy in law making

(d)       Relation between the legislature and the executive

Ans: (b)

 

71.       The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from 

(a)        The President of India

(b)       The Parliament of India

(c)        The Prime Minister of India

(d)       The Union Finance Minister

Ans: (b)

72.       The Union Council of Ministers consists of:

(a)        Prime Minister

(b)       Cabinet Minister

(c)        Cabinet Ministers and Chief Ministers of the States

(d)       Cabinet Ministers, Ministers of State and Deputy Ministers

Ans: (d)

73.       The portfolios are allocated to the ministers by:

(a)        the President

(b)       the Prime Minister

(c)        collective decision of the Council of Ministers

(d)       individual choice

Ans: (b)

74.       The salary and perquisites of the Prime Minister of India are decided by the:

(a)        Constitution

(b)       Cabinet

(c)        Parliament

(d)       President

Ans: (c)

75.       The Prime Minister is said to hold office during the pleasure of the President but in reality he stays in office as long as he enjoys the confidence of:

(a)        the electorate

(b)       the Lok Sabha

(c)        the party to which he belongs

(d)       Parliament

Ans: (b)

76.       In the event of the resignation or death of the Prime Minister:

(a)        the Ministry is dissolved

(b)       fresh general elections must take place

(c)        the Cabinet may choose another leader

(d)       the President decides what to do

Ans: (a)

77.       The Prime Minister is :

(a)        elected by Lok Sabha

(b)       elected by the Parliament

(c)        appointed by the President

(d)       nominated by the party enjoying majority in Lok Sabha

Ans: (c)

78.       The Prime Minister:

(a)        is head of government

(b)       is the leader of Lok Sabha

(c)        may change the portfolios of the Ministers at will

(d)       may do all the above

Ans: (d)

79.       Is the Prime Minister bound to advise the President on matters on which his advice is sought?

(a)        Yes

(b)       No

(c)        It is discretionary

(d)       If the Council of Ministers so desires

Ans: (a)

80.       The rank of the different Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers is determined by the:

(a)        President

(b)       Prime Minister

(c)        Cabinet Secretary

(d)       Speaker of Lok Sabha

Ans: (b)

81.  In Parliamentary Government, Ministers remain in office so long as they enjoy:

(a)        confidence of the upper house of the legislature

(b)       support of the armed forces

(c)        confidence of the popular chamber of legislature

(d)       popular support

Ans: (c)

82.       Collective responsibility of the Cabinet was introduced in India by the:

(a)        Government of India Act, 1935

(b)       Minto-Morley Reforms

(c)        Independence Act, 1947

(d)       Constitution of India

Ans: (d)

83.       If a Minister of a State wants to resign, to whom he should address the letter of resignation?

(a)        Chief Minister

(b)       Speaker of Vidhan Sabha

(c)        Governor of the State

(d)       Leader of his political party

Ans: (a)

84.       What is the position of a 'Minister of State' in the Central Government?

(a)        He is the nominee of the State Governor

(b)       He is the nominee of the State Cabinets

(c)        He looks after the interests of the State Cabinet

(d)       He is a Minister of Central Government but not a member of the Cabinet

Ans: (d)

85.       Who among the following is directly responsible to Parliament for all matters concerning the Defence Services of India?

(a)        Cabinet Committee on political affairs

(b)       President

(c)        Prime Minister

(d)       Defence Minister

Ans: (d)

86.       The executive power is vested in the President but it is actually used by him on the advice of :

(a)        the Prime Minister

(b)       the Council of Ministers

(c)        Parliament

(d)       None of the above

Ans: (b)

87.       An 'office of profit' which disqualifies a person from being a member of the Union or State Legislature does not include office held under:

(a)        the Government of India

(b)       a State Government

(c)        a local authority

(d)       All of the above

Ans: (c)

88.       In practice the policy of the Government is shaped by:

(a)        all the ministers

(b)       the Prime Minister

(c)        the Cabinet

(d)       special committees

Ans: (c)

89.       In a parliamentary democracy the:

(a)        Executive controls the Legislature

(b)       Executive and Legislature are strictly separate

(c)        Judiciary controls both Legislature and Executive

(d)       Legislature controls the Executive

Ans: (d)

90.       Acts of State done in the name of the President of India are required to be countersigned by way of authentication by:

(a)        a Minister

(b)       the Prime Minister

(c)        the Speaker

(d)       a Secretary to the Government

Ans: (d)

91.       The Ministers are individually responsible to:

(a)        the President

(b)       the House of the people

(c)        the Prime Minister

(d)       the House of which they are members

Ans: (a)

92.       In the matter of State legislation the President may:

(a)        exercise only suspensive veto power

(b)       may withhold assent to any bill reserved for his consideration except money bills

(c)        withhold his assent to any bill reserved for his consideration

(d)       directly disallow any bill which he considers anti national

Ans: (c)

93.       Which one of the following powers can be exercised by both the President and the Governor?

(a)        Power to pardon a sentence by court martial

(b)       Power to remit a sentence in an offence relating to a matter on the State List

(c)        Power to commute a sentence of death in certain circumstances

(d)       Power to remit a sentence by court martial

Ans: (c)

94.       Which one of the following statements is correct?

(a)        Chief Election Commissioner of India holds his office during the pleasure of the President

(b)       The Governor of the State holds his office during the pleasure of the President

(c)        The Prime Minister' can only be removed by a resolution passed by both Houses of Parliament

(d)       The Speaker of the Lok Sabha can be, removed at the pleasure of the President

Ans: (b)

95.       Which of the following statements is correct?

(a)        The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the President of India

(b)       The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Parliament

(c)        The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha

(d)       The Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Prime Minister

Ans: (b)

96.       The Chief Minister of a State in India is not eligible to vote in the Presidential election if :

(a)        he himself is a candidates

(b)       he is yet to prove his majority on the floor of the Lower House of the State Legislature

(c)        he is a member of the Upper House of the State Legislature

(d)       he is a caretaker Chief Minister

Ans: (c)

97.       If a Minister loses a no-confidence motion, then:

(a)        the Minister resigns

(b)       the whole Council of Ministers resigns

(c)        Lok Sabha is dissolved

(d)       only Prime Minister and that Minister resign

Ans: (b)

 

98.       Minimum age required to contest for Presidentship is

(a)        30 years

(b)       35 years

(c)        23 years

(d)       21 years

Ans: (b)

99.       Which of the following powers is not enjoyed by the President of India in the

event of emergency proclaimed under Article 352 of the Constitution?

(a)        He can suspend the enforcement of Fundamental Rights

(b)       He is authorised to direct any State to exercise its Executive power in a particular manner

(c)        He is authorised, during the recess of Lok Sabha, to allow expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India pending sanction of the Parliament

(d)       He is authorised to dissolve the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

Ans: (d)

100.     In case a President dies while in office, the Vice-President can act as President for a maximum period of:

(a)        2 years

(b)       1 year

(c)        3 months

(d)       6 months

Ans: (d)

 

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